Saturday, August 20, 2011

ortho idea study material (200 mcqs)


IDEAS WTS MDS ORTHODONTICS - Question
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1. In case of severe arch length discrepancy which
posterior teeth is usually displaced?
A. Mandibular second molar displaced buccally
B. Mandibular second premolar displaced lingually
C. Mandibular second premolar displaced bucally @@@
D. Mandibular first premolar displaced bucally


2. A child patient with fixed orthodontic appliance
suffers from gingivitis. You should
A. Stress importance of good oral hygiene@@@
B. Remove bands till gingiva returns to normal
C. Observation, no treatment needed
D. Regular, scaling by professional personnel


3. The most common local cause of malocclusion is
A. Early loss of primary teeth@@@
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Presence of supernumerary teeth
D. Late eruption of teeth


4. In a child with mixed dentition, it is not indicated
to correct
A. Transient class 2 malocclusion@@@
B. Class 3 malocclusion
C. Thumb sucking habit D. All of the above


5. Overjet is
A. Horizontal overlap@@ 
B. Vertical overlap
C. Discrepancy in transverse plane
D. None of the above


6. If child swallows fluoride solution, what should
be done
A. Make him drink water B. Make him drink milk@@
C. Give NaHCO3 D. Nothing to be done


7. The function of compensating curve is
A. To help provide balance occlusion in complete@@
dentures when mandible is protruded
B. To aid in establishing an incisal guide
C. Same as function of curve of space
D. None of the above


8. Following orthodontic treatment of rotated tooth,
relapse is most commonly due to
A. Oblique fibers B. Supracrestal fibers@@
C. Sharpey’s fibers D. Apical fibers


9. The key ridge useful in assessing malocclusion is
represented by
A. Maxilla B. Zygomatic buttress@@
C. Sphenoid bone D. Mandible


10. Most suitable pontic for maxillary posterior
region is
A. Trupontic or long pin pontic@@? B. Sanitary pontic
C. Flat back pontic with porcelain facing
D. Pin facing pontic


11. What is the VHN for type 1 gold alloys?
A. 121 @@B. 145
C. 350 D. 90


12. Supracrestal fibrotomy is done after correction
of:
A. Crowding B. Proclined incisors
C. Severely rotated teeth@@ D. Space closure


13. The last primary tooth to be replaced by a
permanent tooth is usually the
A. Maxillary second molar
B. Mandibular second molar
C. Maxillary canine @@
D. Mandibular canine


14. If E/E are lost due to caries at 8 years in a
crowded mouth 5/5 will probably
A. Impact@@ B. Be locked out buccally
C. Fail to erupt D. Be deflected palatally


15. At some time, thumb sucking is noted in
A. Less than 10% of preschool children
B. 10-15% of preschool children
C. More than 50% of preschool children@@
D. All preschool children


16. Displaced condylar (intracapsular) fracture in a
child should be managed by
A. Circum-mandibular wiring B. Early mobilization@@
C. Intermaxillary fixation D. Transosseous wiring


17. All of the following can be classified as
myofunctional appliance except
A. An anterior bite plane B. Anderson’s appliance
C. Begg’s appliance@@ D. Oral screen


18. The Frankfort plane joins the
A. Ala of nose and tragus
B. Anterior nasal spine and pogonion
C. Nasion and pogonion D. Porion and orbitale@@


19. The “ugly-duckling’ stage in the mixed dentition
period is seen between the ages of
A. 5 and 7 years B. 7 and 9 years
C. 9 and 11 years@@ D. 11 and 13 years


20. The average ‘leeway space’ available in each
half of the maxilla is approximately
A. 0.9 mm@@ B. 2.9mm
C. 4.9 mm D. 6.9 mm


21. In occlusion, the teeth are in
A. Cusp-to cusp contact B. Edge-to edge contact
C. Marginal contact D. Surface-to-surface contact@@


22. In an appliance with expansion screw, the
expansion is
A. 1 mm for one turn B. 0.25 mm for ¼ turn@@
C. 5 mm for one turn D. 5 mm for ¼ turn


23. Most stable point on cephalogram is
A. Point A B. Bolton’s point
C. Sell turcica@@ D. Orbitale


24. Unique property of Dicor, the new ceramic is
A. Color stability B. Ability to fuse with metal
C. No shrinkage D. Castability@@


25. Distal space maintainer is mainly indicated to
A. Guide eruption of premolars
B. Guide eruption of mandibular first molar@@
C. Prevent space closure in the maxillary premolar area
D. None of the above


26. Angle ANB of -5° indicates
A. Class III malocclusion@@
B. Severe protrusion with class II malocclusion
C. Class II division 1 malocclusion
D. Class I type 1 malocclusion


27. Which of the following would increase
treatment time of an orthodontic patient
A. Nonsteroidal antiflammatory drugs@@
B. Phenytoin
C. Vitamin D D. Antihypertensive drugs


28. In ideal occlusion lingual cusp of maxillary first
premolar occludes
A. At the junction of marginal ridge areas of lower first
and second premolar@@
B. With no opposing teeth
C. With the central fossa of mandibular second premolar"""???
D. With the central fossa of mandibular first premolar


29. Causes of occlusal grinding is/are
A. Discrepancy between centric occlusion and centric
relation
B. Emotional stress and tension
C. Irritating alveolar ridge resorption
D. All of the above@@


30. Two-digit nomenclature of non-separate teeth
of four quadrants of oral cavity is given by
A. WHO B. FDI@@
C. ADA D. IDA


31. Leeway space present in deciduous dentition
helps to compensate for
A. Premolar eruption
B. Late mesial shift of molars@@
C. Relieving crowding in deciduous dentition
D. Correction of mandibular diastema


32. Orthodontic treatment is contraindicated in
A. Chronic gingivitis
B. When patient is more than 18 years
C. Marfan’s syndrome@@ D. None of the above


33. During exfoliation of deciduous teeth, alveolar
ridge is
A. Resorbed B. Deposited
C. Resorbed and deposited intermittently@@
D. Neither resorbed nor deposited


34. Occlusal adjustment is affected by all except
A. Compensating curve B. Cusp height
C. Incisal guidance D. Postural position@@


35. In orthodontic treatment, rapid tooth movement
will cause all except
A. Devitalization of teeth B. Resorption of roots
C. Diffuse calcification of pulp@@ D. Ankylosis


36. Treatment of U/C crossbite in 5-6 year old child
is done
A. As early as possible@@ B. After eruption of molars
C. After all deciduous teeth are shed
D. No treatment required


37. Function of occlusal rests is
A. To transmit forces along vertical axis of tooth@@
B. To stabilize the denture
C. To prevent lateral forces acting on teeth
D. To increase retention of partial denture


38. Which of the following relation has minimum
amount of vertical dimension?
A. Reverse overlap B. Retruded contact
C. Maximum cuspation @@D. Edge to edge anteriors


39. Cephalometric analysis are used to evaluate
growth changes by superimposing on
A. SN plane @@B. Mandibular plane
C. FHP D. Occlusal plane


40. Statistics to check out mean values is done by
A. Chi-square test B. Student’s analysis@@
C. Probability test D. Horizontal studies


41. Porcelain is best fused
A. In open air B. Under air compression@@
C. When several layers are fired simultaneously
D. Under minimum pressure


42. It is necessary to remove a distooclusal inlay
from maxillary premolar. The procedure of choice is
A. Cut through the isthmus and remove the inlay in 2
pieces@@
B. Use a chisel and mallet
C. Try to tease the inlay out with help of an elevator
D. None of the above.


43. Oral screens are used for all of the following
purposes except
A. Mouth breathing B. Tongue thrusting@@
C. Lip biting D. Retraction of upper protruded teeth


44. After eruption of teeth, root is completed within
A. 1 ½ - 2 ½ years B. 2 ½ - 3 ½ years@@
C. 5-6 years D. 5-6 months


45. Closed bite is seen in which type of
malocclusion?
A. Class I B. Class II div 1
C. Class II div 2@@ D. Class III


46. ‘Torque’ can be applied to teeth by means of :
A. Twin – wire B. Laminated wire
C. Rectangular wire @@D. Nitinol wire


47. Myofunctional appliance is given at which
stage
A. Primary dentition B. Mixed dentition@@
C. Permanent dentition D. Adulthood


48. Serial extraction is done in which type of
malocclusion
A. Class I@@ B. Class II
C. Class II div 2 D. Class III


49. In edentulous mouths the primary stress
bearing area maxilla is
A. Maxillary ridge@@ B. Palatal vault
C. Buccal area D. Posterior palatal seal area


50. Primary stress bearing area in mandibular
edentulous ridge is
A. Buccal shelf @@B. Crest of the ridge
C. Retromolar pad D. Lingual flange


51. Incorporation of peripheral seal in an impression
is necessary to obtain
A. Retention
B. Functionally moulded periphery@@@
C. Harmonius occlusion D. Mylohyoid muscle


52. Which of the following is true regarding
difference between primary and permanent teeth
A. Primary teeth have smaller roots@@
B. Primary teeth have smooth continuous canals
C. Accessory canal are rare in primary teeth
D. Primary teeth are less whitish


53. Intercanine width is increased with
A. Erupt of lateral incisors
B. Eruption of permanent canines@@
C. Eruption of premolars D. Eruption of peg laterals


54. Balanced occlusion is
A. Bilateral balance in protrusive movement only
B. Bilateral balance during rest
C. Bilateral balance in all eccentric, movements only
D. Bilateral balance in both centric and eccentric
movement@@


55. Late mesial shift of mandibular permanent first
molar is compensated for by
A. Primate spaces B. Median diastema
C. Leeway space@@
D. Wearing of proximal contacts of premolar teeth


56. Delayed eruption of teeth occurs in
A. Craniofacial dysostosis B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Cleidocranial dysostosis @@D. Osteitis deformans


57. Interceptive and preventive orthodontics
cannot be carried out after eruption of
A. Second premolars B. First molars
C. Second molars@@ D. Third molars


58. Chin cap is used in which of the following
cases?
A. To redirect mandibular growth in skeletal class III
malocclusion with anterior open bite@@
B. To correct anterior cross bite of maxillary central
incisors
C. Following serial extraction
D. To correct skeletal class II malocclusion


59. A patient 6 yrs of age has unilateral cross
bite due to functional shift of the mandible . The
treatment of choice is:
A. Bilateral expansion of the maxillary arch@@
B. Unilateral expansion of the maxillary teeth of affected
side
C. Unilateral expansion of the maxillary teeth of
unaffected side
D. No correction , but observation till the succedaneous
teeth erupts


60. Reciprocal anchorage is offered by
A. Activator B. Intermaxillary elastics
C. Maxillary expansion appliance@@
D. Catalan’s appliance


61. Anterior bite plane is trimmed so that
A. It inclines at 10° B. It inclines at 30°
C. Posterior teeth are 2 to 3 mm apart@@
D. Posterior teeth are 5 to 6 mm apart


62. Frankfort horizontal plane lies between
A. Porion to point A B. Porion to point B
C. Bolton’s point to point A D. Porion to orbitale@@


63. Angle’s malocclusion class II division I is shown
in cephalograms are
A. Angle ANB of +8°@@ B. Angle ANB of +2°
C. Angle ANB of -5° D. Angle ANB of -2°


64. Angle formed between mandibular plane and
the long axis of mandibular central incisor is
A. 90° ± 5°@@B. 25°
C. 120° D. 80° ± 2°


65. Midline diastema should be corrected
A. As early as possible
B. Only if protrusion of teeth present
C. Only if patient wants it
D. After eruption of upper canines@@


66. Which terminal plane is favorable for upper and
lower deciduous second molar relationship?
A. Flush terminal plane@@ B. Mesial step
C. Distal step D. None of the above


67. Early loss of deciduous teeth causes
A. Early eruption of permanent teeth
B. Delayed eruption of permanent teeth@@
C. Missing permanent teeth
D. Crowding of permanent teeth


68. If overjet increases during orthodontic
treatment, it may be due to
A. Irregular application of orthodontic forces
B. Ill-fitting appliance
C. Overextended acrylic base D. Loss of anchorage@@


69. Condition present in class II division 2
malocclusion is
A. Open bite
B. Retrusion of maxillary central incisors@@
C. Retrusion of maxillary lateral incisors
D. Any of the above


70. Most class II malocclusion can be prevented by
A. Breastfeeding
B. Maintaining integrity of primary dentitions
C. Preventing deleterious habits
D. None of the above@@


71. The optimal time to employ an orthodontic
appliance that takes advantage of growth is during
A. Late primary dentition B. Early mixed dentition
C. Late mixed dentition@@
D. Early permanent dentition


72. Stationary anchorage refers to anchor teeth
which
A. Cannot move B. Are banded
C. Are not free to tilt@@
D. Are supported by extraoral forces


73. Fact that differentiates true class III from
pseudo class III malocclusion is
A. Degree of anterior crossbite B. Bilateral crossbite
C. Forward shift of mandible during closure@@
D. Occlusal relationship between maxillary and
mandibular first molars


74. Expansion screws used in treatment of
crossbite typically produce about
A. 1 mm expansion per month
B. 1 mm expansion per quarter turn
C. 1 mm expansion per half turn
D. 0.2 mm expansion per quarter turn@@


75. Orthodontic treatment is contraindicated in
A. Adults B. Deciduous dentition
C. Chronic gingivitis @@D. All of the above


76. Leeway space helps in development of
occlusion by
A. Mesial drift of molars@@
B. Providing space of eruption of molars
C. Providing space for eruption of premolars
D. Preventing the ugly duckling stage


77. The chronological age of a child is
A. Closely related to dental age
B. Closely related to physiological age
C. Accurate index of maturation
D. Often independent of dental and skeletal age@@


78. Maximum growth of skull is completed by
A. 4 years of age@@? B. 8 years of age
C. Puberty D. 16 years of age


79. A 300 gm force is applied through a canine
retractor, the following change will be noticed:
A. Hyalinization@@ B. Rear root resorption
C. Frontal root resorption D. Rapid tooth movement


80.Six keys to normal occlusion were given by:
A. Andrews@@ B. Angle C. Tweed D. Steiner


81. Anterior crossbite is classified as Angle’s classI
A. Type I B. Type II
C. Type III @@D. Type IV


82. Diastema closure involves
A. Stationary anchorage B. Reciprocal anchorage
C. Simple anchorage D. All of the above@@?


83. The first evidence of calcification of mandibular
3rd molars is
A. 6 months B. 18 months
C. 30 months D. 8 years@@


84. A removable appliance most easily carries out
which tooth movement
A. Rotation B. Intrusion
C. Extrusion D. Tipping@@


85. Who demonstrated acid pretreatment in
orthodontic practice?
A. Buonocore@@ B. Miura
C. Retief D. Smith


86. Which appliance is not suitable for skeletal C1
–III malocclusion at the age of 8 years?
A. Frankel III B. Activator III
C. Chin cap D. Maxillary splint appliance.@@


87. All of the following appliance were
introduced by Edward H Angle except:
A. E. arch appliance B. Pin and tube appliance
C. Edgewire appliance D. Straight wire appliance@@


88. Correction of anterior crossbite is feasible if
patient has
A. Sufficient overjet B. Open bite
C. Class I molars@@ D. Enough space in premolar area


89. Patient of cleft palate characteristically has
A. Prognathic maxilla B. Prognathic mandible
C. Deficient mid face@@ D. Deficient upper face


90. Gonial angle with age tends to
A. Increase in size B. Decrease in size@@
C. First increase then decrease
D. First decrease then increase


91. In a skeletal class III malocclusion , the
mandible would have undergone a
A. Backward rotation B. Forward rotation@@?
C. Anticlockwise rotation D. Clockwise rotation


92. Placement of tooth too forward in maxilla is
A. Ante version@@ B. Retroversion
C. Supraversion D. Retraction


93. Incidence of midline diastema is maximum in
the maxillary arch at about
A. 6 to 7 years@@? B. 10 to 12 years
C. 13 to 14 years D. 15 to 18 years


94. Orthodontic tooth movement taking place along
vertical axis is
A. Translation B. Rotation
C. Intrusion@@? D. Tipping


95. Pseudo class III malocclusion occurs due to
A. Labially inclined maxillary incisors
B. Lingually inclined maxillary incisors@@?
C. Lingually inclined mandibular incisors
D. None of the above


96. During fixed, mechanotherapy, a patient using
class II elastics is utilizing:
A. Simple anchorage B. Baker’s anchorage@@
C. Reciprocal anchorage
D. Intra maxillary anchorage


97. In Angle’s class III malocclusion, mandibular
anterior teeth will be
A. Proclined B. Retroclined@@
C. Inclined D. Any of the above


98. In which malocclusion, maxillary incisor
inclination is most vertical
A. Angle’s class II, div II @@B. Angle’s class II, div I
C. Angle’s class III D. None of the above


99. A crossbite is a dental malformation in
A. AP plane B. Transverse plane@@
C. Vertical plane D. Any of the the above


100. Functional retrusion may be seen in which
malocclusion
A. Angle’s class I B. Angle’s class II div 2@@
C. Angle’s class III D. Any of the above


101. A disto-occlusion corresponds to
A. Angle’s class I B. Angle’s class II
C. Angle’s class III D. None of the above
102. The ugly duckling stage is seen at the age of
A. 6 to 7 years B. 9 to 10 years
C. 12 to 14 years D. 15 to 18 years
103 Vertical growth of face is due to growth at all
sites except
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A. Condylar process of mandible
B. Alveolar process of maxilla
C. Posterior border of ramus
D. Frontonasal process of maxilla
104. Baker anchorage utilizes
A. Intermaxillary anchorage with screws
B. Intramaxillary anchorage with screws
C. Intermaxillary anchorage with elastics
D. Intramaxillary anchorage with elastics
105. The landmark not situated on mandible is
A. Point B B. Porion
C. Gnathion D. Gonion
106. Who is the inventor of Twin Block appliance :
A. William Clark B. Emil Herbst
C. Andrews D. Wick Alexander
107. Not a source of orthodontic anchorage is
A. Bone B. Root
C. Skul D. Dentin
108. Facial plane angle more than normal indicates
A. Class I tendency B. Class II tendency
C. Class III tendency D. None of the above
109. Unilateral landmark on cephalogram is
A. Porion B. Basion
C. Gonion D. Orbitale
110. Adenoid facies is seen in
A. Tongue thruster B. Thumbsucker
C. Mouth breather D. Lip sucker
111. Which of the following conditions is self
retaining?
A. Posterior crossbite B. Anterior crossbite
C. Incisor rotation D. Maxillary arch expansion
112. Treatment of anterior crossbite existing with
deep bite is best carried out by means of
A. Tongue blade B. Inclined plane
C. Lip bumper D. Z springs
113. The part of the fixed orthodontic appliance
that transmits force from the arch wire on to the
tooth is
A. Auxiliaries B. Attachment
C. Springs D. Band
114. Amount of orthodontic force required for
stopping mandibular growth is
A. 400 to 800 gm B. 800 to 1200 gm
C. 1200 to 1600 gm D. 1600 to 2000 gm
115. A chin cup must be worn for
A. 6 hours a day B. 10 hours a day
C. 14 hours a day D. 20 hours a day
116. Apexogenosis is
A. Formation of apical one-third of tooth
B. Formation of apical two-third of tooth
C. Closure of the apical formation in developing tooth
D. Deposition of cellular cementum at apex of tooth
117. Amount of force required for tipping a tooth is
A. 10 to 12 gm B. 30 to 50 gm
C. 60 to 80 gm D. 90 to 100 gm
118. The center of rotation in bodily tooth
movement is located
A. Within apical one-third
B. At junction of apical and middle third
C. Within middle one-third D. At infinity
119. The normal value for the angle SNA is
A. 75 B. 81
C. 88 D. 91
120. Transillumination in children is useful for
A. Koplik’s spots B. Melanoma
C. Sialothiasis D. All of the above
121. Anchorage in Hawley’s appliance is by
A. Acrylic plate B. Labial bow
C. Molar clasp D. Interproximal clasp
122. Change in facial profile with age is of
A. Flattening B. More concave
C. More convex D. No change
123. Facial profile of a typical mouth breather is
A. Long and wide B. Short and wide
C. Long and narrow D. Short and narrow
124. Premature exfoliation of primary canines may
indicate
A. An arch length in excess
B. An arch length deficiency
C. A skeletal malocclusion D. No relevance
125. Maxilla articulate with all the following except
A. Frontal B. Zygomatic
C. Temporal D. Nasal
126. Ectodermal cells are responsible for
A. Alveolar bone B. Periodontal tissue
C. Cementum D. Crown and shape of root
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127. The angle of convexity
A. SNA B. NAPog. C. ANB D. SNB
128. In mandible, the main growth site is in
A. Condylar cartilage
B. Posterior border of ramus
C. Gonial angle
D. Body of mandible
129. The most efficient tooth movement is
produced by application of following force by fixed
appliance:
A. Light continuous force
B. Heavy interrupted force
C. Light intermittent force D. All of the above
130. Springs used for removable appliance should
be fabricated from steel wire of:
A. Less than 0.5 mm wire B. 0. 5 mm wire
C. Has no relation with the diameter of wire used
D. None of the above
131. An anterior bite plane be trimmed so that
A. It is inclined at 10 ° to the occlusal plane
B. It is inclined at 30° to the occlusion plane
C. The posterior teeth are kept 5mm apart
D. The posterior teeth are kept 2 mm apart
132. The 18/8 stainless steel used in orthodontic
wire contains
A. 18% iron : 8% nickel
B. 18% nickel : 8% chromium
C. 18% chromium : 8% nickel
D. 18% chromium : 8% cobalt
133. At birth the one nearest to adult size is
A. Mandible B. Cranial base
C. Cranial valt D. Middle face
134. Incidence of Angle’s class II malocclusion is
A. Rare B. 22%
C. 50% D. 75%
135. Most stable area for evaluation of craniofacial
growth is
A. Cranial vault B. Anterior cranial base
C. Occlusal plane D. Nasal floor
136. After age of 6, the greatest increase in size of
mandible occurs
A. At symphysis B. Between canines
C. Along lower borders D. Distal to first molars
137. Resistance units of equal size pulling against
each is an example of which form of
anchorage:
A. Cortical anchorage
B. Reciprocal anchorage
C. Reinforced anchorage
D. Stationary anchorage
138. Unintended movement of anchor teeth is
referred to as:
A. Stationary anchorage B. Simple anchorage
C. Reciprocal anchorage D. Anchorage slippage
139. Gingival deformities due to fixed orthodontic
treatment can be corrected by
A. Gingivectomy B. Gingivoplasty
C. Soft tissue curettage D. Any of the above
140. Abnormal maxillary labial frenum attachment
leads to
A. Midline diastema B. Crowding in anterior region
C. Labial migration of incisors D. None of the above
141. Severely crowded mandibular incisors usually
result from
A. Mesial migration of teeth
B. Premature loss of primary teeth
C. Presence of supernumerary teeth
D. Tooth size arch length discrepancy
142. Robert’s retractor is an example of:
A. Headgear B. Canine retractor
C. Labial bow D. Coil spring
143. Bone tissue grows by
A. Apposition B. Interstitial growth
C.Osteoclastic growth
D. Mesenchymal tissue growth
144. First permanent molars begin to calcify at
A. 6 month IU B. At birth
C. Before deciduous incisors D. 1 year after birth
145. Supracrestal fibrotomy is done to prevent
relapse of a rotation movement of the tooth. Ideal
retention period after surgery to allow new
attachment of fibres is:
A. 8 weeks B. 12 weeks
C. 16 weeks D. 24 weeks
146. In correcting the anterior crossbite, the
appliance to be used is determined by the
A. Amount of over bite B. Age of the patient
C. Patient cooperation D. All of the above
147. Not found in the flux for soldering stainless
steel is
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A. Boric acid B. Borax
C. Potassium fluoride D. Magnesium carbonate
148. Cells responsible for bone resorption during
orthodontic movement of teeth are:
A. Osteoblasts B. Odontobalsts
C. Osteoclasts
D. Pleuripotential cells of the periodontal ligament
149. To regain arch length in the anterior segment
by moving the incisors labially, one should:
A. Use a tongue blade B. Use an inclined plane
C. Use a split saddle acrylic space regainer
D. Evaluate the position of the teeth cephalometrically
before beginning
150. A heavy fibrous labial frenum is likely to cause
A. Malocclusion class I B. Malocclusion class II
C. Diastema D. None of the above
151. The first toothbud develops when embryo
length is
A. 6 mm B. 10 mm
C. 12 mm D. 20 mm
152. The classification using deciduous second
molar was given by
A. Angle B. Tweed
C. Simon D. Baume
153. Occlusal plane closer to FHP is called
A. Abstraction B. Attraction
C. Contraction D. Protraction
154. Addition of titanium to stainless steel
improves
A. Strength B. Resiliency
C. Hardness D. All of the above
155. What is recommended time for etching in
permanent teeth?
A. 30 to 60 seconds B. 90 seconds
C. Less than 30 seconds D. More than 90 seconds
156. Supramentale on a cephalogram is
A. Point A B. Point B
C. Point pog D. Point Me
157. Topical fluoride application is beneficial if
used
A. Frequently in high concentration
B. Frequently in low concentration
C. Sparingly in high concentration
D. Sparingly in low concentration
158. A disadvantage of NaF application is
A. Solution has to be freshly prepared
B. Has metallic taste
C. Stains the tooth D. Frequent patient visit
159. Fibers responsible for relapse of rotation
movement
A. Oblique B. Horizontal
C. Circumferential D. Gingival
160. The band and loop space maintainer is most
frequently used:
A. To maintain in the space of a primary first molar
before eruption of permanent first molar
B. To maintain the space of permanent first molar
C. For maintaining bilateral posterior space when more
than one tooth is lost.
D. Both A and B.
161. Nursing bottle caries is least likely to involve
A. Maxillary incisors B. Maxillary molars
C. Mandibular incisors D. Mandible molars
162. Intermaxillary sutures close by age of
A. 16 to 18 months B. 7 to 9 months
C. 6 to 18 years D. 7 to 9 years
163. Crowns of all primary teeth are completed by
the age of
A. 5-6 months B. 6-8 months
C. 8-10 months D. 12-16 months
164. Stainless steel with maximum corrosion
resistance is
A. Ferrite B. Mertensite
C. Austenite D. None
165. Posterior bite plane is contraindicated in
A. Functional retrusion B. Bimaxillary protrusion
C. Open bite D. Deep bite
166. A single force applied at which point of a tooth
will allow complete translation of the tooth.
A. At the apex
B. At the incisal edge
C. At the center of resistance
D. At t’he center of rotation
167. Which of the fibers attached to cementum are
most likely to contribute to relapse of
tooth rotation:
A. Apical fibers
B. Gingival group of fibers
C. Horizontal fibers
D. Oblique fibers
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168. Which of the following forces best accomplish
orthodontic tooth movement?
A. Heavy and continuous
B. Heavy and intermittent
C. Light and continuous
D. Light and intermittent
169. Which dimension in which arch is considered
as a safety value for pubertal growth spurts?
A. Maxillary intercanine dimension
B. Mandibular intercanine dimension
C. Maxillary intermolar width
D. Mandibular intermolar width
170. Most structures of adult face develop from:
A. First and second branchial arch and tissue surrounding
the forebrain
B. 2nd and 3rd brachial arch and tissues surrounding the
forebrain
C. Ist and 4th branchial arch
D. Ist and 3rd branchial arch
171. The skul at birth contains:
A. 45 separated bones B. 44 separated bones
C. 43 separated bones D. 42 separated bones
172. In mixed dentition, which of the following may
be considered as a self correcting problem with
age?
A. Unilateral loss of primary canine
B. Lack of interdental spaces
C. A distal step D. Open bite
173. The pharyngeal muscle which forms a part of
buccinator mechanism is:
A. Inferior constrictor B. Middle constrictor
C. Superior constrictor D. Palatopharyngeal
174. During mastication pressures exerted on
teeth range from:
A. 400 to 700 pounds B. 150 to 500 pounds
C. 50 to 150 pounds D. Culmann
175. Who propounded the trajectorial theory of
bone formation?
A. An anatomist, Meyer
B. Mathematician, Culmann
C. Combination of A and B D. None of the above
176. Lip incompetency may be due to:
A. Increased anterior lower facial height
B. Short resting lip length
C. Large anteroposterior skeletal discrepancy usually
D. All of the above
177. The most difficult malocclusion to be
corrected by orthodontic treatment is:
A. Class II division 2
B. Class III with horizontal growth pattern
C. Class III with vertical growth pattern
D. Bimaxillary protrusion
178. Which of the following is not true?
A. Deep bite is often associated with maxillary
prognathism
B. Open bite is associated with an increase in anterior
facial height
C. Mandibular prognathism is less common than
maxillary prognathism
D. Myofunctional therapy is indicated for tongue
thrusting
179. Functional appliances
A. Only move teeth
B. Can change the direction of growth
C. Are fabricated in the original mandibular position
D. Correct malocclusion rapidly
180. In the treatment of traumatic intrusion it will
be useless to:
A. Splint the tooth B. Take an X- ray
C. Wait for its re- eruption D. Recall the patient
181. If there is no physiological spacing in between
deciduous incisors, what is your investigation?
A. Intra – oral X- ray periapical view
B. Study model
C. Cephalogram D. All of the above
182. The middle oral seal is:
A. Between roof of the tongue and vault of the palate
B. Between the root of the tongue and the soft palate
C. None of the above D. All of the above
183. The major criteria to differentiate between a
true class III and a pseudo class III malocclusion
is:
A. Existence of a forward shift of the mandible during
closure
B. Occlusal relationship between maxillary and
mandibular first molar
C. Presence of posterior crossbite
D. Presence of anterior crossbite
184. Gnathostatic model by Simon are those in
which:
A. Base of the lower model corresponds to the FHP
B. Base of the upper model corresponds to the FHP
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C. Base of the upper model corresponds to the S-N- plane
D. Base of the lower model corresponds to S-N plane
185. An example of intermaxillary anchorage is:
A. Class –II elastics between maxillary and mandibular
molars
B. Intra arch elastics
C. Occipital headgear
D. Retraction of maxillary anteriors by tipping them
lingually using mandibular molars as anchorage
186. If the teeth are placed behind the orbital
plane, the term used is:
A. Attraction B. Abstraction
C. Protraction D. Retraction
187. When C1-II relationship is present on one side
only and there is Class – I relationship on the
otherside, it is called :
A. CI –II div 1 B. C1- II div2
C. C1-II subdivision D. All of the above
188. Moyers has given a table by which the size of
unerupted (permanent) teeth may be predicted. In
order to use this chart, we must know:
A. The incisal lengths 21 12
B. The date of eruption of 21 12
C. The mesiodistal width of 32,31,41,42
D. The mesiodistal width of 66
189. All the following cast analysis are used for
evaluation of case for palatal expansion except:
A. Pont’s index B. Schwarz model analysis
C. BONN analysis D. Boltons analysis
190. According to Tweed philosophy correct
placement of these teeth is necessary to minimize
relapse of:
A. Lower incisors B. Upper incisors
C. Upper first molars D. Lower first molars
191. An increased FMA in treatment planning
significance
A. Good prognosis B. Poor prognosis
C. Has no relationship D. None of the above
192. The anatomic porion is:
A. The upper edge of the shadow of the auditory canal
seen on cephalometric films
B. The location of radiopaque marker placed on the rod
that extents into the external auditory meatus as part of
the cephalometric head positioning device.
C. Difficult to locate
D. Reliable cephalometric landmark
193. Premature loss deciduous maxillary second
molar produces a malocclusion in the permanent
dentition, characterized by:
A. A Class II molar relationship on the affected side
B. A Class III molar relationship on the affected side
C. A Class I molar relationship on the affected side
D. Delayed eruption of permanent molar
194. “Pseudoanodontia” is a term used to
describe:
A. Peg - shaped teeth B. Total absence of teeth
C. Teeth present but do not erupt
D. Partial absence of teeth
195. Which of the following statements is correct
regarding the “submerged” primary molar?
A. Tooth is non – vital B. The tooth is ankylosed
C. There is no permanent successor
D. Resorption of roots is not evident
196. Aaccording to Wolff’s law:
A. Human teeth drift mesially as interproximal wear
occurs
B. Pressure causes bone resorption
C. The optimal level of force for moving teeth is 10 to
200 gms.
D. Bone trabeculae line up in response to mechanical
stresses.
197. Which clinical condition require the team
work of pediatrician, plastic surgeon,
orthodontist, oral surgeon and ENT surgeon?
A. Cleft lip and cleft palate
B. Skeletal C1- III cases after 14 years
C.Long Face syndrome
D. Sleep Apnea syndrome
198. Tongue thrusting habit in a 10 year old
patient is least likely to have caused:
A. Flaring of incisors B. Anterior open bite
C. Incompetent lips D. Expanded upper arch
199. Rotation correction is achieved by using:
A. Force through the center of rotation
B. Force and a couple
C. A couple D. Force passed
200. Which theory describes the tooth movement?
A. Equilibrium theory B. Pressure – tension theory
C. Blood flow theory D. Combination of B and C


answers





IDEAS WTS MDS ORTHODONTICS - 2008 Explanations


1. C. Mandibular second premolar displaced bucally
Because, mandbular second molar erupts after the second
premolar and also bucal displacement is more common than
lingual displacement.
2. A. Stress importance of good oral hygiene
Fixed orthodontic appliances make maintenance of oral hygiene
more difficult and more important. If gingivitis develops in
relation to such appliances, reinforce oral hygiene instructions
and prescribe hygiene aids like interdental stimulators and
proximal brushes to reach between the teeth.
3. A. Early loss of primary teeth
4. A. Transient class 2 malocclusion
5. A. Horizontal overlap
Normal relation is 2-3 mm of overjet
6. B. Make him drink milk
Once vomiting is induced, subsequent efforts should be made
to decrease F- absorption by administering F – binding liquids
like warm water, Ca(OH)2, antacid containing Al or Mg
hydroxide or MILK.
7. A. To help provide balance occlusion in complete
dentures when mandible is protruded
8. B. Supracrestal fibers
This is because elastic supracrestal fibres remodel extremely
slowly and can still exert forces capable of displacing a tooth
even at 1 year after removal of an orthodontic appliance.
9. B. Zygomatic buttress
10. A. Trupontic or long pin pontic
11. A. 121
12. C. Severely rotated teeth
Circumferential supracrestal fibrotomy (CSF) eliminates the
pull of the stretched supracrestal gingival fibres which are the
major cause of orthodontic relapse.
13. C. Maxillary canine
14. A. Impact
As buccal impaction is more common than palatal
15. C. More than 50% of preschool children
16. B. Early mobilization
Fortunately, most jaw fractures in preadolescent children can be
treated with little or no surgical manipulation of the segments
and little immobilization of jaws, because the bony segments
are self retentive and healing process is rapid. Condylar
fractures in children are treated best with short fixation times
and rapid return to function.
17. C. Begg’s appliance
Begg Appliance is fully bandable/ bondable orthodontic
appliance.
18. D. Porion and orbitale
19. C. 9 and 11 years
The period from eruption of lateral incisors to the eruption of
canine is called so by Broadbent. It is apt term implying “
unesthetic metamorphosis leading to esthetic result”
20. A. 0.9 mm
21. D. Surface-to-surface contact
22. B. 0.25 mm for ¼ turn
23. C. Sell turcica
24. D. Castability
25. B. Guide eruption of mandibular first molar
26. A. Class III malocclusion
27. C. Vitamin D
28. C. With the central fossa of mandibular second
premolar
29. D. All of the above
30. B. FDI
31. B. Late mesial shift of molars
This way flush terminal plane relationship in primary dentition
is transformed to Class I molar relationship.
32. C. Marfan’s syndrome
33. C. Resorbed and deposited intermittently
34. D. Postural position
35. C. Diffuse calcification of pulp
Devitalisation of teeth occurs when there is previous history of
trauma to the tooth or there is poor control of orthodontic force.
Root remodeling is constant feature of orthodontic tooth
movement but permanent loss of tooth structure would occur
only if repair did not replce the initially resorbed cementum, as
with heavy forces.If heavy forces are used to extrude a tooth
quickly, it is traumatic and can lead to ankylosis and/ or
resorption.
36. A. As early as possible
This is true, esp. if associated with mandibular shift.Left
uncorrected, it can produce undesirable growth, dental
compensation leading to a true asymmetry at a later time, and
potentilly harmful functional pattern.
37. A. To transmit forces along vertical axis of tooth
38. C. Maximum cuspation
39. A. SN plane
40. B. Student’s analysis
41. B. Under air compression
42. A. Cut through the isthmus and remove the inlay in 2
pieces
43. B. Tongue thrusting
44. B. 2 ½ - 3 ½ years
45. C. Class II div 2
Closed bite or deep bite is most characteristic feature of Class
II div 2 malocclusion.
46. C. Rectangular wire
47. B. Mixed dentition
48. A. Class I
49. A. Maxillary ridge
50. A. Buccal shelf
IDEAS WTS MDS ORTHODONTICS - 2008 Explanations
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51. B. Functionally moulded impression
52. A. Primary teeth have smaller roots
53. B. Eruption of permanent canines
As growth continues, teeth erupt not only upwards but also
slightly outwards. More width is gained in the maxilla than in
the mandible.
54. D. Bilateral balance in both centric and eccentric
movement
55. C. Leeway space
At the time E’s are lost, both the max. and mand. Molar tend to
shift mesially into Leeway space, the mand. Molar normally
moves more forward tha its maxillary counterpart.This
differential movement is important for smooth transition of
flush terminal plane relationship in primary dentition to Class I
molar relationship in permanent dentition.
56. C. Cleidocranial dysostosis
57. C. Second molars
58. A. To redirect mandibular growth in skeletal class III
malocclusion with anterior open bite
Chin is rotated down and back and this way worsen anterior
open bite , Cases with only short vertical height are ideal
patients for chin cap.
59. A. Bilateral expansion of the maxillary arch
Prolonged sucking often produces mildly narrow max. arch and
tendency towards Bilateral cross bite. This condition is usually
associated with shift of the mandible to one side on closure to
gain better function.
60. C. Maxillary expansion appliance
61. C. Posterior teeth are 2 to 3 mm apart
It is indicated in deepbite pts. Where it is required to correct
deep bite by extrusion of posteriors. This is allowed so by
separating Posterior teeth are 2 to 3 mm apart, separation more
than this would be uncomfortable for the pt. to tolerate.
62. D. Porion to orbitale
63. A. Angle ANB of +8°
64. A. 90° ± 5°
According to TWEED, this is recommended for enhanced
stability.
65. D. After eruption of upper canines
The space tends to close as permanent canine erupts. As a
general guideline, a maxillary central diastema of 2 mm or less
will spontaneously tend to close, while total closure of diastema
initially greater than 2 mm is unlikely
66. A. Flush terminal plane
Flush terminal plane is normal relation of primary molars. If
the child has FTP in mixed dentition, about 3.5 mm of lower
molar forward relative to upper molar is required for smooth
transition of Flush terminal plane to Class I molar relation in
permanent dentition.
67. B. Delayed eruption of permanent teeth
Eruption of premolar teeth will be delayed in children who lose
primary molarsat 4/5 yrs of age or before. Thereafter, with the
extraction of primary molarthere will be decrease in delay of
premolar eruption
68. D. Loss of anchorage
69. B. Retrusion of maxillary central incisors
70. D. None of the above
71. C. Late mixed dentition
72. C. Are not free to tilt
73. C. Forward shift of mandible during closure
Forward shift of mandible during closure is present in pseudo
class III malocclusion.
74. D. 0.2 mm expansion per quarter turn
75. C. Chronic gingivitis
Plaque is main etiologic factor in periodontal breakdown and
plaque induced gingivitis is the first step in disease process.
Fixed orthodontic appliances, simultaneously, make
maintenance of oral hygiene more difficult and more important
76. A. Mesial drift of molars
77. D. Often independent of dental and skeletal age
78. A. 4 years of age
79. A. Hyalinization
Optimum tipping forces orthodontic tooth movement for
tipping are 50-75 gm and those for translation are 100 – 150
gm. Heavy forces lead to sterile necrosis called “hyalanisation”
80. A. Andrews
Andrews during 1970’s put forward six key to normal
occlusion. These are:
1) Molar Inter arch relationship
2) Mesiodistal crown angulation- The gingival part of long axis
of the crown must be distal to the occlusal part.
3) Labio-lingual crown inclination- If the gingival area of
crown is more lingually placed than the occlusal area it is
referred to as positive crown inclination and vice-versa.
4) Absence of rotation
5) Tight contacts between adjacent teeth
6) Curve of space-should be flat not exceeding 1.5mm
81. C. Type III
Type I: crowded or rotated incisors
Type II: procumbent and spaced maxillary incisors
Type III: Anterior crossbite
Type IV: Posterior crossbite
82. D. All of the above
83. D. 8 years
84. D. Tipping
It is difficult to obtain the two-point contacts on teeth necessary
to produce complex tooth movements, which means that the
appliance itself may limit the possibilities for treatment.
85. A. Buonocore
86. D. Maxillary splint appliance.
Maxillary splint appliance will hold the maxilla and worsen
skeletal C1 –III malocclusion.
87. D. Straight wire appliance
Straight wire appliance ie. SWA was proposed by Andrews.
88. C. Class I molars
89. C. Deficient mid face
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Many of the orthodontic problems of cleft palate children in the
late and early mixed dentition result not from the cleft itself,
but from the effects of surgical repair. Although the techniques
for repair of cleft lip and palate have improved tremendously in
recent years, closure of the lip inevitably creates some
constriction across the anterior part of the maxillary arch, and
closure of a cleft palate causes at least some degree of lateral
constriction.
90. B. Decrease in size
91. B. Forward rotation
92. A. Ante version
93. A. 6 to 7 years
94. C. Intrusion
95. B. Lingually inclined maxillary incisors
96. B. Baker’s anchorage
97. B. Retroclined
The reason is found in the concept of "dental compensation for
skeletal discrepancy." This can occur naturally as well as being
created by orthodontic camouflage treatment. In mandibular
prognathism, for instance, as the individual grows the upper
incisors tend to protrude while the lower incisors incline
lingually. By the time growth is completed, the dental
discrepancy usually is smaller than the jaw discrepancy. Tooth
position has compensated at least partially for the jaw
discrepancy.
98. A. Angle’s class II, div II
Because in class III as a result of dental compensation upper
incisors tend to be proclined.
99. B. Transverse plane
100. B. Angle’s class II div 2
101. B. Angle’s class II
102. B. 9 to 10 years
103. C. Posterior border of ramus
104. C. Intermaxillary anchorage with elastics
105. B. Porion
A radiopaque marker is placed on the rod that extends into the
external auditory meatus as part of the cephalometric head
positioning device, and the location of this marker, referred to
as "machine porion" is often used to locate porion.
106. A. William Clark
107. D. Dentin
108. C. Class III tendency
109. B. Basion
110. C. Mouth breather
111. B. Anterior crossbite
This is true provided sufficient amount of overbite is obtained
after correction.
112. B. Inclined plane
113. B. Attachment
This is true for both the brackets and the tubes.
114. C. 1200 to 1600 gm
115. C. 14 hours a day
116. C. Closure of the apical formation in developing tooth
117. B. 30 to 50 gm
118. D. At infinity
119. B. 81
120. C. Sialothiasis
121. A. Acrylic plate
122. A. Flattening
123. C. Long and narrow
Altered respiratory pattern, such as breathing through the
mouth rather than the nose, could change the posture of the
head, jaw, and tongue. This in turn could alter the equilibrium
of pressures on the jaws and teeth and affect both jaw growth
and tooth position. In order to breathe through the mouth, it is
necessary to lower the mandible and tongue, and extend (tip
back) the head. If these postural changes were maintained, face
height would increase, and posterior teeth would super-erupt;
unless there was unusual vertical growth of the ramus, the
mandible would rotate down and back, opening the bite
anteriorly and increasing overjet; and increased pressure from
the stretched cheeks might cause a narrower maxillary dental
arch.
124. B. An arch length deficiency
Loss of primary canine may be due to either ectopic eruption of
lateral incisor which indicates lack of enough space for all
permanent incisor or may resul from an abberant path of lateral
incisor.
125. D. Nasal
126. D. Crown and shape of root
127. B. NAPog.
128. A. Condylar cartilage
129. A. Light continuous force
Heavy intermittent force, though less efficient are clinically
acceptable.
130. B. 0. 5 mm wire
This is because smaller wires are not strong enough.
131. D. The posterior teeth are kept 2 mm apart
132. C. 18% chromium : 8% nickel
133. C. Cranial valt
134. B. 22%
Angle class I malocclusion: 50-55%
Angle class II malocclusion: 15-20%
Angle class III malocclusion: <1%
Normal occlusion: 30%
135. B. Anterior cranial base
136. D. Distal to first molars
This is by resorption of anterior border of mandible.
137. B. Reciprocal anchorage
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Reciprocal anchorage-Refers to resistance offered by two
malposed units when the dissipation of equal
and opposite forces tends to move each units towards normal
occlusion.
138. D. Anchorage slippage
Also called loss of anchorage.
139. B. Gingivoplasty
140. A. Midline diastema
141. D. Tooth size arch length discrepancy
142. C. Labial bow
143. A. Apposition
Interstitial growth, simply means that it occurs at all points
within the tissue. When mineralization takes place so that hard
tissue is formed, interstitial growth becomes impossible.
144. B. At birth
145. C. 16 weeks
146. D. All of the above
147. D. Magnesium carbonate
148. C. Osteoclasts
149. D. Evaluate the position of the teeth cephalometrically
before beginning
150. C. Diastema
151. A. 6 mm
152. D. Baume
153. B. Attraction
154. B. Resiliency
155. A. 30 to 60 seconds
156. B. Point B
157. B. Frequently in low concentration
158. D. Frequent patient visit
159. C. Circumferential
160. A. To maintain in the space of a primary first molar
before eruption of permanent first molar
161. C. Mandibular incisors
162. D. 7 to 9 years
163. C. 8-10 months
164. C. Austenite
165. D. Deep bite
166.C. At the center of resistance
Center of resistance- Point analogous to the centers of gravity.
Generally it is constant.In single root it lies between one third
and one half of the root apical to alveolar crest.
In multi rooted tooth it lies 1-2 mm apical to furcation
167. B. Gingival group of fibers
Principal fibers of the periodontal ligament rearranges
themselves quite rapidly to the position in about 4 weeks.The
supra-alveolar gingival fiber take as much as 40 weeks to
rearrange around the new position and thus predispose to
relapse.
168. C. Light and continuous
Use of continuous light force is recommended to be applied for
adult group of patient rather than intermittent force as applied
by removable appliance. This is because continuous forces are
expected to bring about direct resorption of the root socket.
They should hence not occlude more than a small percentage of
blood vessels with in the periodontal ligament, not substantially
interfere with their nutritional supply and little interference
with normal biologic functioning. In adult due to heavy force
teeth may devitalize because the opening into the tooth (apical
foramen) is smaller and blood vessels can be easily disrupted.
169. A. Maxillary intercanine dimension
IC width serves as safety valve for dominant horizontal basal
mandibular growth spurt.
170. A. First and second branchial arch and tissue
surrounding the forebrain
171. A. 45 separated bones
172. B. Lack of interdental spaces
The possibility that a distal step would become class II is very
real, and this not self correcting problem. When the central
incisors erupt, these teeth use up essentially all of the excess
space in the normal primary dentition. With the eruption of the
lateral incisors, space becomes tight in both arches. Normal
child will go through a transitory stage of mandibular incisor
crowding at age 8 to 9 even if there will eventually be enough
room to accommodate all the permanent teeth in good
alignment. In other words, a period when the mandibular
incisors are slightly crowded is a normal developmental stage.
Continued development of the arches improves the spacing
situation, and by the time the canine teeth erupt, space is once
again adequate.
173. C. Superior constrictor
174. B. 150 to 500 pounds
During masticatory function, the teeth and periodontal
structures are subjected to intermittent heavy forces. Tooth
contacts last for 1 second or less; forces are quite heavy,
ranging from 1 or 2 kg while soft substances are chewed up to
as much as 50 kg against a more resistant object. When a tooth
is subjected to heavy loads of this type, quick displacement of
the tooth within the PDL space is prevented by the
incompressible tissue fluid. Instead, the force is transmitted to
the alveolar bone, which bends in response.
175. C. Combination of A and B
176. D. All of the above
Term Lip incompetency is reserved for lips that are separated
at rest by more than 3-4 mm
177. C. Class III with vertical growth pattern
Class III with vertical growth pattern tend to worsen with the
use of chin cup or face mask if the pateint to begin with has
long facial height.
178. D. Myofunctional therapy is indicated for tongue
thrusting
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Myofunctional exercises are indicated for tongue thrusting to
train the child to hold the tongue in proper position during
swallowing motion.
179. B. Can change the direction of growth
Functional appliance are used for growth modification
procedure that are aimed at
Intercepting and treating jaw discrepancies. They function by
1) Increase or decrease in jaw size
2) A change in spatial relationship of the jaw
3) Change in the direction of growth of the jaws
4) Acceleration of desirable growth.
180. A. Splint the tooth
181. A. Intra – oral X- ray periapical view
182. A. Between roof of the tongue and vault of the palate
183. A. Existence of a forward shift of the mandible during
closure
184. B. Base of the upper model corresponds to the FHP
185. D. Retraction of maxillary anteriors by tipping them
lingually using maxillary molars as anchorage
186. D. Retraction
187. C. C1-II subdivision
188. C. The mesiodistal width of 32,31,41,42
To use moyers analysis we must know the combined width of
lower incisors
189. D. Boltons analysis
Boltons analysis is tooth size discrepancy analysis.
190. A. Lower incisors
191. B. Poor prognosis
192. A. The upper edge of the shadow of the auditory canal
seen on cephalometric films
The shadow of auditory canal can be seenon cephalometric
radiograph, usually located above and posterior to machine
porion.
193. A. A Class II molar relationship on the affected side
194. C. Teeth present but do not erupt
195. B. The tooth is ankylosed
196. D. Bone trabeculae line up in response to mechanical
stresses.
Wolf’s law of transformation of bone-Bone unlike other
connective tissues responds to mild degrees of pressure and
tension, by changes in its form. This may take place on the
surface of the bone under periosteum, or in the case of
cancellous bone on the surface of the trabeculae, or on the walls
of marrow spaces or air sinuses. It has been found that bone is
formed in just the quanitity and shape that will enable it to
withstand the physical demands made upon it, with the
greatest amount of economy of structure. This is the basis
of Wolff’s law.
197. A. Cleft lip and cleft palate
198. D. Expanded upper arch
199. B. Force and a couple
200. B. Pressure – tension theory

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