Wednesday, October 12, 2011

AIIMS MAY 2011 DENTAL PAPER



 AIIMS MAY 2011
DENTAL:  Discussion
==============
again a repeat paper.mixture of AIPG DENTAL 2009 AND AIIMS RECENT .MEDICAL QUESTIONS ARE ALSO REPEATED FROM AMIT ASHISH 2009 AND 2010
http://www.aippg.net/forum/f23/dental-aiims-may-2011-a-96600/
http://rxdentistry.co.in/forum/showthread.php?219-Aiims-may-2011-discussion


Anatomy:-
Q.1 C.nerve not carrying psn stimulatn
a)4th b)3rd c)7th d)9th c.n.
Nerve Not carrying parasympathetic  fibres  - Trochlear


Q.2 TMJ dev. (AIPG 2009)
a)2wk
b)10wk @@@
c)20wk
d)22wk


Q3. area that lies immediately lateral to the ant. Perforating substance is-
a.orbital gyrus
B.UNCUS
C.OPTIC CHIASMA
D.LIMEN INSULE@@@
Q.  Lateral to optic chiasma
Limen insulae @@@


Q.4.which organ posterior 2 pancreas
a)kidney @@@
b)stomach
c)colon
d)duodenum


Q.5.  all structure pierced buccinater .except
a)parotid gland
b)molar glands of cheeks
c)buccal br of facicl n
d)buccal br of mand n. @@@


Physiology:-
Q.6 intrinsic factor secreted by –
parietal cells..refer aiims may 2010 a a


Q.7 A pt diagnosed withincrease in ldl.his father n broalso had same ds.
a)l dl recepter mutation @@@
b)familial lipoprotein lipese def


Q8.  primary func of muscle spindle
a)length b)stretch c)metabolism d}propioception
Q. golgi spindle detect
a)muscle length @@@
b)m.tension
c)motor n. stimulation


Q.9. cortical representation of body in cerebrum
a) vertical @@@
b)oblique
c)tandem


Q.10.  which one associated with increased aging
a)increased cross linkages in collagen
b)increased superoxides dismutase
c)increased accumulation of free radicals  / free radical injury @@@






Q.11 main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles
a)raised blood flow
b)vasodilatation due 2 local metabolite
c)increased heart rate
Q.  Vasodilatation  - Accumulation of metabolites


Q.12 visual cycle /  Visual transduction -
Depolarization
Repolarization
Hyperpolarization
hyper depolarisation


Q.13 Bezold’s jarrisch reflex which of the following is true. ?
a. Tachycardia with hypovolemia
b. Bradycardia with hypovolemia@@@
c. Hypertension inspite of hypovolumia
d. Bradycardia with normovolemia
Ref : Neural Blockade in Clinical Anesthesia and Pain By Michael J. Cousins 4th Ed Pg 249 – 250
Bezold-Jarisch Reflex
A cardiovascular decompressor reflex involving a marked increase in vagal (parasympathetic) efferent discharge to the heart, elicited by stimulation of chemoreceptors, primarily in the left ventricle. This causes a slowing of the heart beat (bradycardia) and dilatation of the peripheral blood vessels with resulting lowering of the blood pressure.
The concept was originated by a German physiologist Albert von Bezold in 1867, later revised by an Austrian dermatologist Adolf Jarisch in 1937


Q.14. hereditry intestinal polyposis gene
a)BRCA
b)p53
c)APC
d)????
Q.  Non hereditary colon ca gene ?
Hmlh1>>>
APC
P53


Microbiology:-
Q.15 . all r diamorphic except a/e
a)blastomyces dermatidis
b)histoplasma
c)penicillium marneffi
d)phialospora @@@
The term Dimorphic fungus has been employed to potential pathogens that grow as mycelial form when incubated at room temperature under laboratory conditions and yeast phase, yeast like cells or spherule form when grown in human tissue or incubated at 37ºC on synthetic laboratory media.
Fungi which can exist in two forms-
1-as filamentous form or
2- as yeast depending on conditions of growth.
In host tissue or culture at 37 00 c they occur as yeast while in soil and in cultures at 22 0 c appear as mould.
Most fungi causing systemic infection are dimorphic fungi. Example-
1. Histoplasma capsulatum (histoplasmosis)
2. Blastomyces dermatitidis(Blastomycosis)
3. Coccidiodes immitis (coccoidiomycosis)
4. Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis (paracoccoidimycoosis)
5. Sporothrix schenekii sporotrichosis)
6. Penicillium marneffei
7. Malasezia furfur,
but cryptococcoosis is not a dimorphic fungus
mnemonics-mala sinha bombay primary health center par rahti hai.
 Highly virulent dimorphic fungi are:
Histoplasma capsulatum var. capsulatum,
Histoplasma capsulatum var. duboisii,
Blastomyces dermatitidis,
Paracoccidioides brasiliensis,
Sporothrix schenckii,
Penicillium marneffei and
Coccidioides immitis.
Dimorphic fungi cause systemic mycosis often termed as
histoplasmosis,
blastomycosis,
paracoccidioidomycosis,
sporotrichosis,
penicilliosis marneffei and coccidioidomycosis.


Q.16. culture media 4 leptospirosis..
a)korthoff @@@@
b)perkin
c)baker
d)tinsdale
Some examples of selective media include:
eosin-methylene blue agar (EMB) that contains methylene blue – toxic to Gram-positive bacteria, allowing only the growth of Gram negative bacteria
YM (yeast and mold) which has a low pH, deterring bacterial growth
blood agar (used in strep tests), which contains bovine heart blood that becomes transparent in the presence of hemolytic Streptococcus
MacConkey agar for Gram-negative bacteria
Hektoen enteric agar (HE) which is selective for Gram-negative bacteria
mannitol salt agar (MSA) which is selective for Gram-positive bacteria and differential for mannitol
Terrific Broth (TB) is used with glycerol in cultivating recombinant strains of Escherichia coli.
xylose lysine desoxyscholate (XLD), which is selective for Gram-negative bacteria
buffered charcoal yeast extract agar, which is selective for certain gram-negative bacteria, especially Legionella pneumophila
Examples of differential media include:
eosin methylene blue (EMB), which is differential for lactose and sucrose fermentation
MacConkey (MCK), which is differential for lactose fermentation
mannitol salt agar (MSA), which is differential for mannitol fermentation
X-gal plates, which are differential for lac operon mutants
Examples of transport media include:
Thioglycolate broth for strict anaerobes.
Stuart transport medium - a non-nutrient soft agar gel containing a reducing agent to prevent oxidation, and charcoal to neutralise
Certain bacterial inhibitors- for gonococci, and buffered glycerol saline for enteric bacilli.
Venkat-Ramakrishnan(VR) medium for v. cholerae.


Q.17 microaerophilic
a)campylobacter @@@
b)vibrio
c)bacteriods
d) pseudomonas
Microphillic bacteria. Examples include:
Borrelia burgdorferi, a species of spirochaete bacteria that causes Lyme disease in humans.
Helicobacter pylori, a species of proteobacteria that has been linked to peptic ulcers and some types of gastritis. Some don't consider it a true obligate microaerophile.[1]
Campylobacter has been described as microaerophilic.[2]
Streptococcus intermedius has also been described as microaerophilic.
Streptococcus pyogenes, a well known microaerophile that causes streptococcal pharyngitis.


Q.18 autoinfection seen in
a)giardia
b) gnathosp
Autoinfection is the infection of a primary host with a parasite, particularly a helminth, in such a way that the complete life cycle of the parasite happens in a single organism, without the involvement of another host. Therefore, the primary host is at the same time the secondary host of the parasite. Some of the organisms where autoinfection occurs are  : -  Strong Tea Entertains Nana'(mnemonic)
Strongyloides stercoralis,
Teania solium
Enterobius vermicularis,
Hymenolepis nana


Q.19 gas gangrene all except
a) cl.histolyticum
b)cl.septicum
c)cl.sporogens@@@@
d)cl.novyi


General Medicine:-
Q.20In which area gall stones pain not percieved
a)epigastrium
b)rt.hypochondrium
c)rt.iliac
d)shoulder @@@


Q.21 all r feature of systemic inflammatory disorder SIRS except :
a)oral temp>38 c
b)leucocytosis
c)thrombocytopenia @@@??


Oral Surgery:
Q22 based on tension and compression trajectories fracture of condyle is best treated by / acc to rule of tensiona and compressional forces acting along the condylar border best way to stabilise a condylar frac against these forces wud require?
a) One plate on anterior & one plate on posterior border @@??
b) One anterior only
c) One laterally only
d) One posterior only
OR.  1. one plate at the ant border and one plate at the post @@@
2. a plate at the anterior border
3. a plate at the posterior border
4. a plate at the lateral border
iin neeraj wadhwan the answer given is  1…. and the answer is 4. ???


Q23. In a condylar fracture and bone plate synthesis to counteract the dynamic tension & compression zones the most acceptable place for plating is
a. A plate fixed laterally in the neck of the condyle.@@@
b. Plate on posterior border of the condyle only.
... c. Plate on the anterior border of the condyle only.
d. Plate on the anterior & posterior border of the condyle.
Ans. A (A plate fixed laterally in the neck of the condyle) Ref: Oral and Maxillofacial Trauma, Raymond J. Fonseca, Robert V. Walker, 3rded, volume 1/552
Condylar neck fractures are usually treated by closed reduction.
"The mandible is exposed, via a submandibular incision, which allows access to the inferior border and entire ramus. A groove is drilled in the lateral ramus to with in the several centimeters with in the fracture line"
“Rigid fixation of a right condylar neck fracture uses a miniplate and monocortical screws’


Q24. treatment of communicated fracture
a) Reconstruction plates 2.5 mm @??
b) Dynamic screws  / dynamic compression plates with eccentric screws
c) Single Miniplate 1.5mm
d) Multiple miniplates


Q25. subcondylar fracture >5 deg. & >37mm overlap is treated with
a) Closed reduction & imf
b) ORIF @@@


Q26.fracture of symphsis canot be treated by  (Refer Aiims may 2009 Ques)
a) 1.5mm One single miniplate
b) 2.5mm mono cortical plate
c) Lag screws
d) 2mm compression plates
Q. a/e in symphysis #  - single plate
Q. A transverse fracture of symphysis  is treated by all of the following  except    
a. Two Compression plates. (2mm)    
b. Two lag screws    
3.single Miniplate fixation (1.5mm) @@
4.2.4 mm reconstruction plate.  
single mini plate fixation cannot support the  dynamics of fracture at symphysis region
Symphyseal fractures had negative bending moments only that caused compression at the alveolar side and tension at the lower border of the mandible and relatively high torsion moments. Compressive strain develops along the buccal aspect, whereas tensile strain develops along the lingual aspect. This produces a fracture that begins in the lingual region and spreads toward the buccal aspect. The anterior mandible undergoes shearing and torsional (twisting)
forces during functional activities. Application of fixation devices must therefore take these factors into consideration. This is why most surgeons advocate two points of fixation in the symphysis: either two bone plates, two lag screws, or possibly one plate or lag screw combined with an arch bar.
Depending on the size of the plate and whether or not an arch bar will also be used
to provide another point of fixation, the fixation could be rigid or functionally stable
Fixation schemes for mandibular symphyseal  fracture.
A large compression plate in  combination with an arch bar for a symphysis fracture (two-point fixation).
Two lag screws inserted  across a symphysis fracture (two-point fixation).
 Two bone plates for a symphysis fracture (two-point fixation). These may or may not be compression plates. Typically the larger one at the inferior border is a compression plate and the one located more superiorly  may or may not.
Symphysis fracture with either two 2.0 mm miniplates, or a stronger bone plate at the inferior border, as well as using the arch bar as another point of fixation


Q27. most difficult fracture to treat
a) Body of mandible
b) Condylar
c) Angle
d) Symphyseal fracture
Which of the following are most complicated fractures. (AIIMS may 2009)
a. Symphysis@@@???
b) Body
c) Condyle????
d) Angle
Condylar fractures are the most complicated fractures because they can effect growth of the fcial structures and because of their close approximity  to brain structures.
Overview of Mandibular Fractures:-
Location of mandibular fractures - Fridrich and associates showed that most fractures occur in the body (29%), condyle (26%), and angle (25%) of the mandible. The symphyses account for 17% of mandibular fractures, whereas fractures of the ramus (4%) and coronoid process (1%) have lower occurrence rates. In automobile accidents, the condylar region was the most common fractured site. In motorcycle accidents, the symphysis was fractured most often. When assault was the cause, the angle demonstrated the highest incidence of fracture.[29]
Associated injuries with mandibular fractures - Fridrich and associates reported that in patients with mandible fractures, 43% of the patients had an associated injury. Of these patients, head injuries occurred in 39% of patients, head and neck lacerations in 30%, midface fractures in 28%, ocular injuries in 16%, nasal fractures in 12%, and cervical spine fractures in 11%. Other injuries present in this group were extremity trauma in 51%, thoracic trauma in 29%, and abdominal trauma in 14%. Of the 1067 patients studied, 12 (2.6%) died of their associated injuries before the mandible fracture could be treated.[29]
Number of fractures per mandible - In patients with mandible fractures, 53% of patients had unilateral fractures, 37% of the patients had 2 fractures, and 9% had 3 or more fractures


Q28. In fracture of atrophic mandible treatment modality is
a) Bone grafting & load bearing ??
b) Bone grafting & load sharing
c) Open reduction
d) Semi rigid
Q.  Mand with bone loss  - Reconstruction plates @@
Refer Q. AIIMS May 2009
Q. In fracture through mental foramen in mandible with less than 10mm of bone loss treatment would be,    
a..Champy’s plate.    
b..Lag screw    
c..Non rigid fixation    
d..Reconstruction plates@@@
In the above question there is bone loss of 10mm and the fracture line is passing through mental foramen. To prevent damage to nerve instead of two plates a load bearing reconstruction plate is given.
The most simplistic way to discuss fixation schemes for fractures are to divide them into
Load-Bearing versus which bear the original load
Load-Sharing Fixation that share the loads with the bone on each side of the fracture
Load-bearing fixation is a device that is of sufficient strength and rigidity that it can bear the
entire load applied to the mandible during functional activities.  Injuries that require
load-bearing fixation are comminuted fractures of the mandible, those fractures
where there is very little bony interface because of atrophy, or those injuries that
have resulted in a loss of a portion of the mandible (defect fractures). Load bearing
fixation is sometimes called bridging fixation because it bridges areas of comminution or bone loss. Such plates are relatively large, thick, and stiff. They use screws that are generally greater than 2.0 mm in diameter (most commonly 2.3 mm, 2.4 mm, or 2.7 mm). When secured to the fragments on each side of the injured area by a minimum  of three bone screws, reconstruction
bone plates can provide temporary stability to the bone fragments.
Load-sharing fixation is any form of internal fixation that is of insufficient stability to bear all of the functional loads  applied across the fracture by the masticatory system. Such a fixation device(s)  requires solid bony fragments on each side of the fracture that can bear some of the  functional loads. Fractures that can be stabilized adequately with load-sharing fixation  devices are simple linear fractures, and constitute the majority of mandibular fractures. Fixation devices that are considered load-sharing include the variety of 2.0 mm miniplating systems, Lag screw techniques etc..,. However Simple linear fractures can also be treated by load-bearing fixation but reverse is not true..
For the majority of fractures in the dentulous mandibular body and symphysis there is sufficient height of bone to place one load-sharing plate along the inferior and one along the superior aspect of the lateral cortex. Because fixation devices are applied to the lateral surface of the mandible, the ability to use two-point fixation requires that there be sufficient height of bone so that the fixation devices can be placed far apart from one another. For instance, an atrophic mandibular fracture, where there is a vertical height of only  15 mm, would not gain much mechanical
advantage from placing two bone plates on  the lateral surface . In such instances Use of a single strong bone plate (reconstruction plate) is recommended when the vertical height of the mandible is small
.
Q.29. alv grafting in cleft palate pt.  - a)after max expansion,cross bite correction before canine correction @


Q.30. most common impaction
a)mesio angular @@
b)vertical
c)distoangular
d)horizontal


Q.31 Route not used in children  (AIPG 2009)
a)I/M
b)subdermal @@@
c)sub mucosal
d)I/V


Q.32.  nitrous oxide acts by - non specific depression


Q.33. when a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck 2 what variable its related
a) angulation @@@
b)position
c)location
d)area of strike


CONSERVATIVE
Q34 lubricating gel used while rubber dam placement all except (AIPG 2009)
a) Soapy water
b) Vaseline @@@
c) Shaving cream
d) Scrub gel


Q35 while placement of ruber dam following technique is NOT used
a) Place clamp on tooth and insert the dam
b) Place dam on tooth then place clamp over it
c) Place dam & frame outside the oral cavity & then on tooth using forcep OVER the dam @@@@
d) Place dam & frame outside the oral cavity & then on tooth using forcep UNDER the dam


Q36.  to restore ACID eroded non carious lesion which is used  (AIPG 2009)
a) GIC
b) RMGIC
c) Compomer
d) composite


Q.37. bonding of GIC 2 tooth structure (AIPG 2009) -
a)metal ions
b)OH IONS
c)COO- ions  / Carboxlic groups@@
d)micromechanical bonding


Q38. fluoride released from GIC restoration is replaced by
a) Hydoxl ion @@@
b) Aluminium ion
c) Silicate ion
d) Carboxylate ion


Q.39.  In caries,which structure becomes more prominent (AIPG 2009)
a)stiae of retzius @@@
b) pickerill
c)hunter shreger lines
d)stie of wickhem


Q40.  amalgam poloshing the outersurface arranged in layer known as
a) beelby layer @@@
b) weelby layer
c) sealby layer


Q41  In a class V cavity preparation M-D walls depends on
a. Direction of enamel rods@@@
b. Contours of gingiva
c. Size of carious lesion
d. Location of contact area
Ans. A (Direction of enamel rods) Ref. Sturdevant, 4th ed. pg 755/ 5th ed. pg 797, 798, 799, 801
- The Outline form Of Class V amalgam tooth preparation is primarily determined by the location and size of caries or
- External shape is related to the contour of marginal gingival
- The direction of mesial & distal wall follows the direction of the enamel rods
Proper outline from for Class V amalgam tooth preparations results in extending the cavosurface margins to sound tooth structure, while maintaining a limited axial depth of 0.5 mm inside the DEJ and 0.75 mm inside the cementum (when on the root surface).
Presently, a more conservative philosophy is used (resulting in smaller restorations with outline forms that are dictated primarily by the size of the defect


Q42. on a radiograph an RCT treated tooth 2 years back a radiolucent cyst enlarged even after sugery what is the reason
a) Leaking from unobturated main canal @@@
b) Unobturated accessory canal
c) Apex was not resected
d) Actinomyces infection


Q.43. lateral incisor with periapical abcess n sinus tract. treatment of sinus tract  - a) no treatment @@@@


Q.44 If histologic slide n contents of canal space could b obtained most common finding in radioluency region is  (AIPG 2009)
a)normal pulp
b)osteoclastic activity @@@
c)A.I.
d)decrease in cellularity


Q45.  Acid etching is done to
a) Dec. micro leakage @@@
b) Dec. polymerization shrinkage
c) Dec. coefficient of thermal expansion
d) Dec. porosity in restorative material


Orthodontics:-
Q.46. normal mandibular plane angle
a)17-30 @@@
b)115-130
c)25-40


Q. 47.  131 deg interincisal angle denotes - Proclined incisors


Q48. Abt y axiswhat is true - obtained by joining sella gnathion to F H plane


Community Dentistry:-
Q.49.  true about simple random sampling
a)every element has an equal probability of being included
b)based on similar characteristics
c)suitable 4 large hetrogenous population


Q.50. guidelines accordingto baby friendly hospital initiative includes all except
a) mother n infant 2 b together 4 24 hr.
b)initiate breast feeding in 4 hr of normal delivery
c)giving no food or drink other than breast milk
d)encourage breast feeding on demand
e. Mother to feed baby 4 hrs @@@


Q.51.  which one is true about normal distribution
a)meam median mode coincide at 1 pt / Mean = Mode = Median @@@
b) values distributed in normal range


Q.52.  all except are approaches 2 health education a/e
a)provision of incentives @@@
b)service approach
c)education ....
d)health approach


Q.53.  increase in false positives cases in community
a)cefepime
b)cefoperazone
c)cefotaxime
Q.  Which cephalo do nt require dose redn - Cefoperazone
Q.  inf false positive  - low prevalence


Q.54.  All of the following measures are used for nutrition assessment to indicate inadequate nutrition except.
a. Increased 1-4yr mortality rate
b. Birth weight < 2500gm
c. Hb< 11.5 g/dl during 3rd trimester of pregnancy.@@@@
d. Decrease weight for height
ans. C (Hb < 11.5 g/dl during 3rd trimester of pregnancy) Ref : CMDT 2008/677; Park 19th / 515-518; Ghai 6th/101; Nelson's 18th7228
Anemia in pregnancy is defined as Hemoglobin measurement below lOg/dl and not 11.5 g/dL Hemoglobin levels less than lOg/dl during pregnancy may be used to indicate inadequate nutrition (nutritional anemia) and not a Hemoglobin level of less than ll.Sg/dl. This is therefore the single best answer of exclusion.
Increased 1-4 year mortality rate indicates un undernutrition / malnutrition in a community (Park l9th/517)
'Mortality in the age group of 1 to 4 years is particularly related to malnutrition' - Park 19th/517
Vital & Health Statistics (Mortality & Morbidity data): Indicators of Malnutrition in Community
• 1 to 4 year mortality rate
• Infant mortality rate
• Second year mortality rate
• Rate of low birth weight babies
• Life expectancy


Q.55.  pt on acarbose n insulin has got hypoglycemic attack..treatment ???
a) maltose
b)glucose @@@
c) galactose
d)sucrose


Q56. a/e causes hypoglycemia  - acarbose


Q.57. most cariogenic sugar
a) glucose
b)sucrose @@@
c)lactose
d)fructose


Q. 58) Fructosamine a/e - Screening of diabetes


Q.59.  while reducing # lingual splaying of segments noted. which will cause increase in
a)intercanthal distance
b)interangular distance @???
c)go-gn distance


Q. 60.  hybridization of dna homologous but not identical inc with


Pharmacology:-
Q. 61.  ifosfamide false is  -
nitrogen mustard
metabolized by CPY
cloroacetaldehyde
less neurotoxic than cyclophosphamide>>>


Q. 62.  piogltazone false is ---
peroxisome proliferative activated receptors PPAR
used in DM 1>>
metabolized by liver
c/I in cardiac dystolic function


Q. 63.  exenatide all r true except
GLP analogue
Releases glucagon>>>
Used in DM 2used subcutaneously


Q.64.  not a sign of succesful stellate ganglion block
a)nasal stuffiness
b)guttman sign
c)horner syndrome
d)bradycardia @@@??


Q.65. anesthetic drug injected for paravertebral block least likely diffuse 2
a)epidural space
b)inter costal space
c)sup n inf paravertebral space
d) sob arachnoid space @@@?


Q.66.  adverse effects of valpoic acid derivative r all except
a)alopecia
b)liver failure
c)wt. gain
d)osteomalacia @@@???


Q.67. drug both anti resorptive n bone formation
a)calcitonin
b)strontium renelate @@@
c)ibaddronate
d)teriperatide


Q.68.  ideal analgesia.....
a)short onset of action, high efficacy,intermediate
duraton
b)short onset ,high efficacy,short duration
c)intermediate onset,??????
Q.   Patient controlled analgesia ?


Periodontics -
Q. 69.  Toothbrush abrasions more on - Maxillary left


Q. 70.  All inv in periodontitis except  - Neisseria


Q. 71.  All found in healthy perio except  - Eubacterium


Q. 72.  Periodontitis  A.A.  - Gm negative anaerobes  Rods


Q. 73.  Role of plaque is obsolete in - Desquamative gingivitis


Q. 74.  Chronic gingivitis h/f  - Disruption of gingival fib n infiltration of lymphocytes plasma cells


Q. 75.  False abt juvenile periodontitis  - Bone loss simultaneous
Q. Which of the following is untrue of LJP localized juvenile periodontitis? (AIIMs may 2009 )
more common in females
mirror  image type of bone loss is seen bilaterally
Amount of bone destruction is proportional to the amount of plaque @@@
aggressive periodontal bone  destruction compared to normal periodontitis
ans C
amount of bone destruction is far advanced then the inflammatory changes caused by deposition of plaque. The amount of bone destruction far exceeds the amount of plaque deposition


Q. 76. .tfo least affects  (repeat ap 2007)
a)periodontium
b)enamel c)cementum
d)epithelial attachment@@@


Q. 77. wich is not an abrasiv in dentrifice
a)CaCo3
b)amylose @@@
c)silicate


Q. 78.  In periodontitis  pt.which one used
a)tooth paste with max abrasive
b)tooth paste with min abrasive @@@
c)tooth powder with max abrasive
d) no abrasive


Q. 79.  brushing technique in pd patients
a)roll b)scrub
c)bass d)sulcular@@@


Oral Pathology / Oral Medicine
Q. 80.  Malignant transformation - Junctional neavus


Q. 81.  Self healing carcinoma among the following is .
a. Leukoplakia
b. Keratoacanthoma@@
c. Benign neuroma
d. Melanoma
Ans. B (Keratoacanthoma) Ref: Burket’s 10thed/167, Shafer 4thEd/88 & 5thEd/116 & 6th ed Pg 82
Keratoacanthoma (self healing carcinoma, molluscum pseudo-carcinomatosum, molluscum sebaceum) is a relatively common low-grade malignancy that originates in the pilosebaceous glands. Trauma, HPV virus, genetic factors and immuno compromised status have been implicated as etiologic factors. It occurs twice commonly in men than women, usuaLly on sun exposed areas. Lips and the vermillion bolder of both the upper and lower lip are affected with equal frequency.
The clinical course of the Lesion is one of its unusual aspects. It begins as a small firm nodule that develops to full size over period 4-8 wks and then undergoes spontaneous regression over the next 6-8 wks (self healing carcinoma)
If spontaneous regression does not occur, the lesion is usually treated by surgical excision parakeratin or orthokeratin surface layer with central plugging is important histologic feature.
Keratoacanthoma is a localized lesion (usually found on sun-exposed skin, including the upper lip


Q. 82.  CVS manifestation in AIDS / HIV include all except  A/E  -
a)pericardial tamponade(?)
 b) Aortic aneurysm  @@


Q.83. widening of predentin layer n presence of large areas of interglobular demtin n irregular tubular pattern of dentin
a) D.I
b) dentin dysplasia
c) odontodysplasia @@@


Q.84.  not associated with natal teeth
a)van de woude syndrome @@@
b)sotos syn
c)cleft palate
d)ellis van crevold


Q.85.  most common developmental cyst
a) median ant. palatal cyst @@@
b) globullo max cyst
c)median mand cyst


Radiology:-
Q. 86.  RVG sensors are protected from infection  / While using the  Radio visiography, the best  method of infection control  for receptors is  (Aiims may 2009)
a) Autoclave the receptors after each use
b) immerse  the receptors  in disinfectant
c) wipe  the sensor with 5.25% hypochlorite solution
d) cover with impervious plastic sheath@@@@@
Ref : Infection Control & Occupational Safety Recommendations for Oral Health Professionals in India 2007  by anil kohli 1st/124.
The  digital sensors and receptors are semicritical instruments. The digital receptor is used in the patient's oral cavity needs to be sheathed with a plastic sheath extending at least 5 inches outside the patient's mouth. The sheath needs to be changed between patients and the digital receptor and only needs to be wiped with a disinfectant wipe if contaminated
Do not immerse Digital Receptors (ones with electronic leads) in disinfectant as the leaching of liquids
may short the circuits in the receptor. Digital Sensors (that do not have leads) may be immersed in a disinfectant per manufacturer's recommendation.


Q. 87. rvg use compared to conventional radiography
a) Same
b) Half @@@
c) 1/5
d) increased  


Q.88  which of the following is identified only by radiographs? (AIPG 2009)
a) mental foramen @@@
b)apical cyst
c) PA granuloma
d)chronic periodontitis


Q.89. ceph radiology distance b/w film n source - 5 feet  from midsagittal plane


Q. 90.  RFLP


Q. 91.  Upper 2 R/L
Leakage frm main canal















2 comments: