AIIMS NOV 2010 MEDICINE PAPER

AIIMS NOV 2010 MEDICINE PAPER

        ANATOMY

        1. Which of the following is the rotational abnormality of mid gut where the cecum is at midline and below stomach?

        a. Mal rotation

        b. Non-rotation

        c. Reverse rotation

        d. Mixed rotation

        Ans: a.

        2. Tear secretion is absent in injury to –

        a. Greater petrosal nerve

        b. Nasociliary nerve

        c. Superior orbital nerve

        d. Maxillary nerve

        Ans: a.

        3. All supplied by superior gluteus nerve, except –

        a. Gluteus maximus

        b. Gluteus medius

        c. Gluteus minimus

        d. Tensor fascia lata

        Ans: a.

        4. Septum transversum gives rise to all of the following, except –

        a. Lesser omentum

        b. Coronary ligament

        c. Ligamentum teres hepatis

        d. Falciparum ligament

        Ans: b.

        5. Tensor tympani is supplied by –

        a. Facial

        b. Glossopharyngeal

        c. Trigeminal

        d. Vagus

        Ans: c.

        6. Structure not developing in the mesentery of stomach -

        a. Liver

        b. Kidney

        c. Pancreas

        d. Spleen

        Ans: b.

        7. Which of the following attains adult size before birth?

        a. Ear ossicles

        b. Maxilla

        c. Mastoid

        d. Parietal bone

        Ans: a.

        8. All of the following are true about scalanus anterior muscles, except –

        a. It is attached to the tubercle of second rib

        b. It is anterior to the transverse cervical artery

        c. It is pierced by phrenic nerve

        d. It separates the subclavian vein from the subclavian artery

        Ans: d.

        9. All are sphincters of lower genital tract of female, except –

        a. Pubovaginalis

        b. Internal urethral sphincter

        c. External urethral sphincter

        d. Bulbosphongiosus

        Ans: d.

        ANESTHESIA

        1. Patient with liver disease and mitral stenosis posted for surgery. All should not be given for induction of anesthesia except –

        a. Halothane

        b. Enflurane

        c. Xenon

        d. Sevoflurane

        Ans: c.

        2. Athlete after surgery using succinylcholine can’t move both limbs because of –

        a. Psuedocholinesterase deficiency

        b. Undiagnosed muscular dystrophy

        c. Phase II Sch block

        d. Due to fasciculation produced by succinylcholine as a side effect

        Ans: a.

        3. Which of the following induction agent suppresses steroidogenesis?

        a. Thiopental

        b. Propofol

        c. Ketamine

        d. Etomidate

        Ans: d.

        4. A patient undergoes thoracotomy. What analgesia should be given postoperatively?

        a. IV Fentanyl

        b. Oral Morphine

        c. NSAID repository

        d. Intercostal cryoanalgesia

        Ans: d.

        BIOCHEMISTRY

        1. In Duchene muscular dystrophy, mutation occurs in promoter region of dystrophin gene, what is the most likely event?

        a. Defective initiation of transcription

        b. Defective methyl capping of MRNA

        c. Defective poly (A) tailing of MRNA

        d. Stops prematurely

        Ans: a.

        2. Which of the following inhibits condensation of acetyl CoA with oxaloacetic acid in Krebs cycle?

        a. Malonate

        b. Fumarate

        c. Fluoroacetate

        d. Arsenite

        Ans: c.

        3. Inhibitor of electron transport, which inhibits transport of ADP in and ATP out of mitochondria -

        a. Atractyloside

        b. Oligomycin

        c. Roteninen

        d. Antimycin

        Ans: a.

        4. Single gene is transferred from one bacteria to another at the site containing restriction endonuclease gene. Which one of the following is true?

        a. Improvement in proofreading

        b. Bacteria gets killed due to lack of methylase

        c. Helps in rapid division/ proper division

        d. Host DNA gets destroyed

        Ans: a.

        5. Conventional cytogenetics are difficult in solid tumors. More so in case of carcinoma cervix is due to –

        a. Increased mitotic rate

        b. Good quality of metaphase

        c. Insufficient specimen

        d. Often contaminated with bacteria

        Ans: d.

        DERMATOLOGY

        1. A teenage girl with moderate acne also complaining of irregular menses. Drug of choice will be?

        a. Oral isotretinoin

        b. Oral acitretin

        c. Oral minocycline

        d. Cryptoterone acetate

        Ans: d.

        2. Farmer with single warty indurated lesion on dorsum of foot. Which of the following could be the lesion?

        a. Verruca vulgaris

        b. Tuberculosis verrucosa cutis

        c. Mycetoma

        d. Lichen planus hypertrophicus

        Ans: d.

        EAR, NOSE & THROAT

        1. Endoscopic surgery through Intranasal approach is used for surgery of all organs except –

        a. Lacrimal gland

        b. Cerebellum

        c. Pituitary gland

        d. Optic nerve

        Ans: b.

        2. Cochlear implant, which is true?

        a. Not contraindicated in cochlear malformation

        b. Contraindicated in children <5 years of age

        c. Indicated in mild to moderate hearing loss

        d. Port is inserted through oval window

        Ans: a.

        3. A 40-year-old man met motor vehicle catastrophe, came to hospital in an hour with severe maxillofacial trauma: PR 120/min, HP 100/70 mmHg sPO2, 80% with oxygen. Which was the immediate management required?

        a. Intravenous access

        b. Orotracheal intubation

        c. Nasotracheal intubation

        d. Tracheostomy

        Ans: d.

        4. What is the reason that an infant can breathe while sucking breast milk?

        a. Small wide tongue

        b. High placed larynx

        c. Small pharynx

        d. Short soft palate

        Ans: b.

        5. In CSF rhinorrhea, treatment of choice –

        a. Putting swab in nostril

        b. Craniotomy

        c. Advising frequent blowing of nose

        d. Wait and watch for 7 days and start antibiotics

        Ans: d.

        6. Perineural invasions seen in –

        a. Adenocarcinoma

        b. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

        c. BCC

        d. Squamous cell carcinoma

        Ans: b.

        7. Regarding retropharyngeal abscess, all are true except –

        a. Lies only on one side

        b. Presents behind prevertebral fascia

        c. Surgical drainage is required

        d. Can be palpated by inserting finger in month

        Ans: b.

        FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY

        1. Spanish Windlass technique is a form of which type of execution?

        a. Garroting

        b. Mugging

        c. Bansdola

        d. Hanging

        Ans: a.

        2. True about aluminum phosphide poisoning, all except –

        a. Esophageal stricture

        b. Subendocardial hemorrhage

        c. Release of phosgene gas

        d. Inhibition of cytochrome A oxidase

        Ans: a.

        3. A rickshaw puller found injured on roadside. On examination, found to have tyre marks on his body. What is this kind of injury?

        a. Pattered bruise

        b. Imprint abrasion

        c. Graze abrasion

        Ans: b.

        4. A patient admitted in the ICU after consuming some poison. He had features of broncho-dilatation, increase in temperature, constipation and tachycardia. The poison consumed is –

        a. Mushroom

        b. Atropine

        c. Organophosphorus

        d. Morphine

        Ans: b.

        5. Widmark formula is used for detection of –

        a. Time since death

        b. Quantity of alcohol intake

        c. Stature of death

        d. Infliction of injury

        Ans: b.

        MICROBIOLOGY

        1. True about enterotoxigenic E. coli -

        a. Does not cause traveler’s diarrhea

        b. Most commonly causes diarrhea in developing countries

        c. Invasion of gut mucosa

        d. Fomite borne

        Ans: b.

        2. Amebiasis is not transmitted through –

        a. Vertical transmission

        b. Feco-oral

        c. Cockroach

        d. Oral

        Ans: a.

        3. Genetic re-assortment is found in –

        a. Hepadnavirus

        b. Parvovirus

        c. Rotavirus

        d. Astrovirus

        Ans: c.

        4. In hospital ward, MRSA spread is stopped by –

        a. Fumigating room

        b. Proper hand washing

        Ans: b.

        5. Which of the followings is false about Clostridium perfringens?

        a. Food poisoning stains produce heat-resistant spores

        b. Show positive Nagler reaction

        c. Most important toxin is hyaluronidase

        d. Most common cause gas gangrene

        Ans: c.

        6. All can cause candidiasis, except –

        a. DM

        b. HTN

        c. Ca breast

        d. Pregnancy

        Ans: b.

        7. Malignant pustule is caused by –

        a. Carbuncle

        b. Ulcerative melanoma

        c. Anthrax of skin

        Ans: c.

        8. During plasma sterilization resting, which of the following is used for detecting efficacy of sterilization?

        a. Bacillus subtilis

        b. Bacillus stearothermophilus

        c. Cl. tetani

        d. Not recalled

        Ans: b.

        9. All are true about Haemophilus influenzae, except –

        a. Requires factors X and V

        b. Doesn’t affect infants below 2 months of age

        c. Capsular polypeptide protein is responsible for virulence

        d. M.C. invasive disease of H. influenzae is meningitis

        Ans: c.

        10. A 35- year old laborer 3 year back presented with single indurated penile ulcer not treated. Later he presented with skin rash with neurological symptoms for which he got treated. Test on monitor treatment response is –

        a. TPI

        b. VDRL

        c. FTA-ABS

        d. Dark field microscopy

        Ans: b.

        11. All true about small pox eradication, except –

        a. Produce life-long immunity

        b. Vaccine is very effective

        c. Cross protection with animal pox

        d. Subclinical infection did not transmit infection

        Ans: c.

        12. Which of the following is false regarding varicella?

        a. Produce rash in flexor surface of forearm

        b. Single stage lesion are found at a time

        c. Secondary infection rate is > 90%

        d. Vaccine protection rate is high

        Ans: b.

        13. Which of the following is true about Vi polysaccharide?

        a. Can be given with yellow fever and hepatitis

        b. Produces severe local reaction

        c. Produces many adverse effects

        d. Has many contraindications

        Ans: a.

        14. All are true regarding tetanus, except –

        a. Transmission through contaminated wounds and injuries

        b. More common in winters and dry weather

        c. Reservoir in soil and intestines of humans and animals

        d. No herd immunity or life-long immunity

        Ans: b.

        15. Wrong about Hepatitis B is –

        a. Transmission is mostly vertical than horizontal

        b. One month time elapsed between viral marker and symptoms onset

        Ans: a.

        16. Characteristic of Bacillus cereus food poisoning is –

        a. Presence of fever

        b. Presence of pain abdomen

        c. Absence of vomiting

        d. Absence of diarrhea

        Ans: b.

        MEDICINE

        1. Which of the following is maternally disomy at chromosome 15?

        a. Klinefelter syndrome

        b. Prader willi syndrome

        c. Angelman syndrome

        d. Turners syndrome

        Ans: b.

        2. How much potassium is present in Ringer’s lactate?

        a. 1

        b. 4

        c. 2

        d. 6

        Ans: b.

        3. Antegrade amnesia is seen in –

        a. Post-traumatic

        b. Stroke

        c. Traumatic paraplegia

        d. Spinal trauma

        Ans: a.

        4. About subendocardial hemorrhage, true is a/e –

        a. Found in right ventricle wall

        b. Sheet like continuous pattern is seen

        c. Flame shaped hemorrhage seen

        d. Occurs in head injury

        Ans: a.

        5. A 60-year-old man with complains of progressive dementia for the past 6 month. Suddenly he complained jitteriness of whole body. EEG showed sharp periodic bipolar spikes. Diagnosis is –

        a. Alzheimer’s disease

        b. Creutzfeldt – Jacob disease

        c. Lewy body dementia

        d. Herpes encephalitis

        Ans: b.

        6. Which is vitamin K dependent clotting factor?

        a. Factor VII

        b. Factor I

        c. Factor XI

        d. Factor XII

        Ans: a.

        7. A 9-year-old boy with elevated both PT and APTT. What is the diagnosis?

        a. Defect in extrinsic pathway

        b. Defect in intrinsic pathway

        c. Platelet function defect

        d. Defect in common pathway

        Ans: d.

        8. Patient is on Ceftriaxone and Amikacin, he developed Klebsiella infection positive for ESBL. What is the next line of management?

        a. Same antibiotic higher dose

        b. Change Ceftriaxone to Ceftazidine

        c. Start Imipenem in place of Ceftriaxone

        d. Replace Amikacin with Quinolones

        Ans: c.

        9. A 21-year-old patient with Ewing sarcoma having radiotherapy and chemotherapy. Which of the following indicates poor prognosis?

        a. B2 microglobulin

        b. Fever

        c. Thrombocytosis

        d. Young age

        Ans: d.

        10. Which one of the following is not included in Jone’s Major criteria?

        a. Pancarditis

        b. Chorea

        c. Subcutaneous nodule

        d. High ESR

        Ans: d.

        11. Splenomegaly least with –

        a. CML

        b. Essential thrombocytosis

        c. Polycythemia ruba vera

        d. Myelofibrosis

        Ans: b.

        12. A 45 year old female for pre-surgery hemostatic evaluation has PT 13.5 sec (control 11-15 s) and aPTT 48 s (control 26-39 s). She does not give history of excessive bleeding following laparoscopic cholecystectomy done 2 years ago. Which of the following should be done?

        a. Factor VIII assay

        b. Platelet aggregation test

        c. Dilute Russel’s viper venom time

        d. Ristocetin co-factor assay

        Ans: c.

        13. Which of the vitamin deficiency lead to lactic acidosis?

        a. Riboflavin

        b. Thiamine

        c. Niacin

        d. Panthotheic acid

        Ans: b.

        14. Which one of the pair not correct?

        a. Supportive Care – chronic viral hepatitis B

        b. Antiviral Drugs – acute viral hepatitis B

        c. Supportive Care – acute viral hepatitis B

        d. Antiviral Drugs – chronic viral hepatitis B

        Ans: b.

        15. A 25-year-old man presents with renal failure. His maternal uncle died of renal failure 10 years ago. On slit lamp examination, keratoconus is present. Diagnosis is

        a. ADPKD

        b. ARPKD

        c. Alport’s syndrome

        d. Denysh-Drash syndrome

        Ans: c.

        16. A 35 year old lady presents with chronic backache. On X-ray she had a D12 collapse. But intervertebral disc space is maintained. All are possible except –

        a. Multiple myeloma

        b. Osteoporosis

        c. Metastasis

        d. Tuberculosis

        Ans: d.

        17. All are true about starting of Beta-blocker therapy in a case of heart disease except –

        a. They should be started with optimum doses

        b. They should be gradually increased over weeks

        c. Special precautions should be taken in cases of NYHA class III and IV

        d. Carvedilol and Metoprolol are the preferred drugs

        Ans: a.

        18. Which is not used in the treatment of hyperkalemia without ECG findings?

        a. Insulin + glucose

        b. Sodium bicarbonate

        c. Calcium glucose

        d. Salbutamol

        Ans: c.

        19. All of the following are minor criteria for multiple myeloma except –

        a. Plasmacytosis 20%

        b. Multiple lytic lesion

        c. IgA < 2.5 and IgG

        d. Plamacytoma of tissue biopsy

        Ans: d.

        20. All are true except –

        a. LKM1 – Autoimmune hepatitis

        b. LKM2 – Drug induced

        c. LKM1 – chronic hepatitis

        d. LKM2 – chronic hepatitis D

        Ans: c.

        21. Gas used to measure diffusion in lung –

        a. CO

        b. NO

        c. CO2

        d. NO2

        Ans: a.

        22. A patient who had undergo surgery 1 month back, presented with complaints of altered sensorium, difficulty in urination, serum Na -140, K- 4.5, urea – 60, creatinine – 1.3, Ca – 15.5. what should not be done?

        a. Intravenous fluid

        b. Furosemide

        c. Hemodialysis

        d. Bisphosphonate

        Ans: c.

        23. Edema is nephrotic syndrome is due to –

        a. Na and water retention

        b. Increased venous pressure

        c. Hypoalbuminemia

        d. Hyperlipidemia

        Ans: c.

        24. Secondary hyperparathyroidism all except –

        a. Rickets

        b. Osteomalacia

        c. Osteoporosis

        d. Renal failure

        Ans: c.

        25. Rate of newly synthesized osteoid mineralization can be best estimated by

        a. Tetracycline labeling

        b. Alizarin red stain

        c. Calcein stain

        d. Von kossa stain

        Ans: a.

        26. Nor a channelopathy

        a. Tay-Sachs disease

        b. Liddle syndrome

        c. Periodic palsy

        d. Cystic fibrosis

        Ans: a.

        27. A patient with complaints of nephrocalcinosis for the past 10 years. Which is false about the diet?

        a. Protein restriction

        b. Calcium restriction

        c. Sodium restriction

        d. Phosphate restriction

        Ans: b.

        28. A patient has prosthetic valve. After 8 months he developed endocarditis. What can be the causative organism?

        a. Staph. aureus

        b. Staph. epidermidis

        c. Strep. Viridens

        d. HACEK

        Ans: b.

        29. Murmur best heard with Valsalva maneuver

        a. VSD

        b. HOCM

        c. MS

        d. AS

        Ans: b.

        30. Cause of nephrocalcinosis in granulomatous disease –

        a. Increased absorption of calcium

        b. Increased conversion to 1,25 OH D2

        c. Dystrophic calcification

        d. Mutation in calcium sensing receptor

        Ans: b.

        31. Congenital cause of hypercoagulable states except –

        a. Protein C deficiency

        b. Protein S deficiency

        c. MTHFR mutation

        d. Lupus anticoagulant

        Ans: d.

        32. Horner syndrome not due to

        a. carotid aneurysm

        b. Medial medullary syndrome

        c. Multiple sclerosis

        d. After treating Raynaud’s disease

        Ans: b.

        33. To make a solution of 10% dextrose with N/5 sister has to mix

        a. 20 ml 10% Dextrose with 80 ml NS

        b. 40 ml 10% Dextrose with 60 ml NS

        c. 60 ml 10% Dextrose in 40 ml NS

        d. 80 ml 10% Dextrose in 20 ml NS

        Ans: d.

        34. Neonate with ABO incompatibility in peripheral smear shows

        a. Microspherocytes

        b. Elliptocytes

        c. Fragmented RBCs

        d. Polychromasia

        Ans: d.

        35. About treatment of phenylketonuria, first step to be done is –

        a. Stopping the substrate of defective enzyme

        b. Supplement of defective enzyme

        c. Reducing the substrate for the enzyme

        d. Provide the deficient proteins

        Ans: c.

        36. A patient presented with thunder clap headache. Followed by unconsciousness with progressive III cranial nerve palsy. Etiology

        a. Extradural hemorrhage

        b. Aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage

        c. Basilar migraine

        d. Cluster headache

        Ans: b.

        37. A 12-year-old child having microcytic hypochromic anemia his blood picture showing Hb > 40 g/I, serum iron levels 20, transferring saturation 40%, ferritin > 800 the diagnosis is –

        a. Iron deficiency anemia

        b. Hemochromatosis

        c. Atransferrinemia

        d. DMT1 gene mutation

        Ans: c.

        38. A 60-year-old female presents with H/o 8 blood transfusion in last 2 years Hb – 6, MCV low, WBC is normal, PLC also normal having hypochromic microcytic and normocytic and normochromic anemia, which investigation is least likely to be done?

        a. Pulmonary hemosiderin

        b. Urinary hemosiderin

        c. Bone marrow biopsy

        d. Gastric endoscopy

        Ans: c.

        39. All done for DM except –

        a. FBS

        b. RBS

        c. D xylose

        d. OGTT

        Ans: c.

        40. Heart disease is most likely reflected by

        a. LDL

        b. HDL

        c. VLDL

        d. Chylomicron

        Ans: b.

        41. A patient presents with following parameters in arterial blood gas analysis Na – 140, k 4.7, CI-112, HCO3- 16, pCO2 – 32, pH 7.34, diagnosis is

        a. High anion gas metabolic acidosis

        b. Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis

        c. Metabolic alkalosis

        d. Respiratory acidosis

        Ans: b.

        42. A girl aged 20 years complains of headache while studying. Her vision is found to be normal. All of the following can be considered while evaluation except –

        a. Interest in studies

        b. Headache in family

        c. Menstrual history

        d. Expectations in self

        Ans: d.

        43. Gallbladder carcinoma from an organism acquired while eating fish –

        a. Gnathostoma spnigerum

        b. C. sinesis

        c. Fasciola hepatica

        Ans: b.

        44. Mechanism of action of EDTA with carbonic anhydrase enzyme is –

        a. Causes conformational change in enzyme

        b. It chelates the metal ion of the enzymes

        c. It combines with the substrate and forms a suicide inhibitor

        d. Combines with the substrate and doesn’t react with the enzyme

        Ans: b.

        45. About fibronectin nephropathy, false is –

        a. Autosomal recessive inheritance

        b. Causes deposition in mesangium and subendothelium

        c. Did not stain for immunoglobulin and complement

        Ans: a.

        OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY

        1. Expectant management done in placenta praevia is called –

        a. Brandt Andrew

        b. Credo

        c. Macfee Johnson

        d. Licey

        Ans: c.

        2. Clue cells are found in –

        a. Bacterial vaginosis

        b. Candida

        c. Trichomonas vaginalis

        Ans: a.

        3. Grading of abruption placenta is done by

        a. Page classification

        b. Johnson classification

        c. Mcfee

        d. APT

        Ans: a.

        4. Emergency contraceptive all except –

        a. Cu LUD

        b. Progesterone pill

        c. Oral mifepristone

        d. LNG IUD

        Ans: d.

        5. A 19 year old patient cam to the outpatient department with complaints of primary amenorrhea. She had well developed breasts and pubic hair. However there was absence of vagina and uterus. Likely diagnosis is –

        a. XYY

        b. Mullerian agencies

        c. Gonadal dysgenesis

        d. Kleinfelter’s syndrome

        Ans: b.

        6. Which of the following is present normally in the urine of a pregnant woman in the third trimester & lactation?

        a. Glucose

        b. Lactose

        c. Galactose

        d. Fructose

        Ans: b.

        7. A 32-year-old G2 mom who is 9 weeks’ pregnant and has a 10-year-old Down syndrome child. What test would you recommended for the mother so that she can know about her chances of getting a Down’s baby in the present pregnancy?

        a. USG showing nuchal translucency at this stage will confirm presence or absence

        b. C.V. biopsy at this stage will confirm presence or absence

        c. Blood test at this stage will confirm presence

        d. Assure her that there is no chance as she is <35 years old

        Ans: b.

        8. About Corpus cancer syndrome, which of the following is false?

        a. DM

        b. HTN

        c. Ca breast

        d. Multiparity

        Ans: d.

        9. Which of the following test is used to differentiate fetal cell and maternal red blood cell?

        a. Kleihauer-Betke test

        b. Bubblin test

        c. APT test

        d. Osmotic fragility

        Ans: c.

        10. Best regimen for eclampsia is –

        a. MgSO4

        b. Lytic cocktail

        c. Phenytoin

        d. Diazepam

        Ans: a.

        11. A 20-year-old female complains of oligomenorrhea along with facial hair. Preliminary investigations reveal raised free testosterone levels. USG pelvis: ovary shows normal morphology. Which of the following could be likely etiology?

        a. Idiopathic hirsutism

        b. PCOD

        c. Testosterone secreting tumor

        d. Adrenal hyperplasia

        Ans: b.

        12. Which of the following is responsible for shock in immediate post partum?

        a. Postpartum hemorrhage

        b. Inversion of uterus

        c. Pulmonary embolism

        d. Amniotic fluid embolism

        Ans: a.

        13. A lady comes in hospital at 37 weeks of pregnancy with history of previous LSCS with BP 150/100 mmHg. On pelvic examination, cervix is found to be soft with 50% effacement, station is -3, pelvis adequate and cervical os is closed. Most appropriate step at the moment would be –

        a. Antihypertensive regimen and then wait for spontaneous labor

        b. Prophylactic antiseizure therapy

        c. Induce labor

        d. Do Cesarean section

        Ans: c.

        14. Treatment of choice for carcinoma cervix stage 3B –

        a. Werthim hysterectomy

        b. Intracavitatory brachytherapy with chemotherapy

        c. Scauta operation

        d. Chemotherapy only

        Ans: b.

        15. Endometrial cancer involving 50% of endometrium, extending to vagina, lymph nodes negative with positive peritoneal cytology is staged as –

        a. III A

        b. III B

        c. IIIC I

        d. III C 2

        Ans: b.

        OPHTHALMOLOGY

        1. Retinitis pigmentosa is a feature of all except -

        a. Refsum’s disease

        b. Hallaverdon Spatz disease

        c. NARP

        d. Abetalipoproteinemia

        Ans: b.

        2. A 25-year-old male presents with painless sudden loss of vision, ocular and systemic examination is not contributory. What is the most probable diagnosis?

        a. Retinal detachment

        b. Eales’ disease

        c. Glaucoma

        d. Cataract

        Ans: b.

        3. A 60-year-old man, with HTN and DM for 10 years, has reduced vision in one eye. On fundus examination, there is a central bleed and the fellow eye is normal, the diagnosis –

        a. Diabetic retinopathy

        b. Retinal tear

        c. Optic neuritis

        d. Hypertensive retinopathy

        Ans: a.

        4. Stocker’s lines are seen in –

        a. Pterygeum

        b. Pinguecula

        c. External hordeolum

        Ans: a.

        5. Treatment for threshold retinopathy is –

        a. Laser coagulation

        b. Panretinal photocoagulation

        c. Retinal reattachment

        d. Antioxidants

        Ans: a.

        ORTHOPEDICS

        1. Dial test is used to diagnose -

        a. Medial meniscus injury

        b. Lateral meniscus injury

        c. Medial collateral ligament injury

        d. Posterolateral corner injury

        Ans: d.

        2. A newborn child presents with inverted foot and the dorsum of the foot cannot touch the anterior tibia. The most probable diagnosis is –

        a. Congenital vertical talus

        b. Arthrogryposis multiplex

        c. CTEV

        Ans: c.

        3. Earliest site of bone involvement in hematogenous involvement –

        a. Metaphysis

        b. Diaphysis

        c. Epiphysis

        d. Area supplies by nutrient artery

        Ans: a.

        4. A person is able to abduct his arm, internally rotate it, place the back of hand on the lumbosacral joint, but is not able to lift it from back. What is the etiology?

        a. Subscapularis tendon tear

        b. Teres major tendon tear

        c. Long head of biceps tendon tear

        d. Acromioclavicular joint dislocation

        Ans: a.

        5. Gallows traction is used in relation to –

        a. # Shaft femur

        b. #Neck femur

        c. #Shaft tibia

        d. #Tibia tuberosity

        Ans: a.

        6. During replantation of an amputated limb, which of the following is done first?

        a. Arterial repair

        b. Venous repair

        c. Fixation of the done

        d. Nerve anastomoses

        Ans: c.

        PHYSIOLOGY

        1. Blood-brain barrier is permeable to all except -

        a. Water

        b. Gas

        c. Lipophilic drugs

        d. Protein

        Ans: d.

        2. Cyanosis in trauma patient. Which of the following is true?

        a. Early sign of hypoxia

        b. Late sign of hypoxia

        c. Absence of cyanosis indicates adequate airway

        d. Absence of cyanosis indicates adequate tissue perfusion

        Ans: d

        3. Negative intrapleural pressure is due to –

        a. Uniform distribution of surfactant over alveoli

        b. Negative intra-alveolar pressure

        c. Absorption of lymphatics from pleura

        d. Presence of cartilaginous ring in upper airways

        Ans: c.

        4. Hypoxemia is dependent on all except –

        a. PCO2

        b. FIO2

        c. Hb level

        d. Altitude

        Ans: c.

        5. Caisson’s disease is due to –

        a. Gas embolism

        b. Fat embolism

        c. Amniotic fluid

        d. Tumor embolism

        Ans: a.

        6. Pacemaker for breathing is present in –

        a. Pneumotaxic center

        b. Apnuestic center

        c. Pre-bottzingers nucleus

        d. Dorsal group of nuclei

        Ans: c.

        7. A study indicates that ovulation occurs more from right ovary. All of the following can be the causes except –

        a. Anatomical asymmetry

        b. Vascular differences

        c. Right handedness is more common in the population

        d. Embryonic variation

        Ans: c.

        8. A man is given continuous testosterone –

        a. It would lead to azoospermia

        b. Increased sperm motility

        c. Increased spermatogenesis

        d. Increase gonadotropin

        Ans: a.

        9. Which of the following is not absorbed in PCT?

        a. Na+

        b. HCO3

        c. PO4

        d. H+

        Ans: d.

        10. Which substance is produced in stomach and controls food intake?

        a. Cholecystokinin

        b. Ghrelin

        c. Insulin like GH

        d. Orexin

        Ans: b.

        11. CO2, diffuses hundred times faster in blood than O2 because –

        a. Has lesser partial pressure in alveoli

        b. Dissolves more than O2 in plasma

        c. Less dense

        Ans: b.

        12. Not a stimulus for static ventilation –

        a. Stretch

        b. J receptor

        c. Oxygen

        d. pCO2

        Ans: b.

        13. Which gas is used to measure diffusion capacity?

        a. CO

        b. Nitrogen

        c. CO2

        Ans: a.

        PATHOLOGY

        1. Mediators of inflammation are all, except -

        a. TNF

        b. IFN

        c. Prostaglandins

        d. Myeloperoxidase

        Ans: d.

        2. False statement about gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST) is –

        a. Duodenum most common site

        b. Smooth walled homogenous well circumscribed

        c. PET is used to assess the extent

        d. Necrosis and ulceration is seen

        Ans: a.

        3. Not a technique to produce transgenic mice –

        a. Transfusion

        b. Electroporation

        c. FISH

        d. Site directed replication

        Ans: c.

        4. Pale infarct is seen in all, except –

        a. Lung

        b. Spleen

        c. Kidney

        d. Heart

        Ans: a.

        5. Endotoxic shock is produced due to –

        a. Endothelial injury

        b. Peripheral vasodilatation

        c. Cardiac pump failure

        Ans: b.

        6. Renal pathology in Wegener granulomatosis –

        a. Focal necrotizing glomerulosclerosis

        b. Nodular glomerulosclerosis

        c. RPGN

        d. Post infective GN

        Ans: a.

        7. Inclusion of oligodendrocytes is characteristic of –

        a. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

        b. CZD

        c. Alzheimer

        d. Diabetes

        Ans: a.

        8. HER2 / NEU positively useful in –

        a. Diagnosis

        b. Response to therapy

        c. Recurrence

        d. Screening

        Ans: b.

        9. All are true about bacterial killing, except –

        a. MPO helps in formation of OCI

        b. NADPH oxidase helps in formation of superoxide anion

        c. Immune deficiency in Bruton agammaglobulinemia is not related to opsonization

        d. Chediak – Higashi syndrome, there is failure of phagolysosome formation

        Ans: c.

        10. Onion ball on nerve biopsy is seen in –

        a. Leprosy neuritis

        b. Amyloid neuropathy

        c. Chronic inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy

        d. Diabetes

        Ans: c.

        PHARMACOLOGY

        1. Drug used in estrogen positive breast cancer –

        a. Tamoxifen

        b. Cyproterone acetate

        c. Flutamide

        d. Fluoxetine

        Ans: a.

        2. SERM used for soteoporosis –

        a. Raloxifen

        b. Estrogen

        c. Cyproterone acetate

        d. Fluoxetine

        Ans: a.

        3. Which of the pairs is incorrect?

        a. V1-smotth muscles

        b. V2-distal nephron

        c. V3-anterior pituitary

        d. V4-CNS

        Ans: d.

        4. Drug causing hemorrhage cystitis –

        a. Cyclophosphamide

        b. 5 FU

        c. Methotrexate

        d. Cytarabine

        Ans: a.

        5. A woman has consumed several tabs of Amitriptyline. All of the following can be used as a part of her management except –

        a. Sodium bicarbonate infusion

        b. Gastric lavage

        c. Use atropine as antidose

        d. Diazepam for seizure control

        Ans: c.

        6. Chemical peeling is done by all except –

        a. Trichloroacetic acid

        b. Phosphoric acid

        c. Carboxylic acid

        d. Kezoic acid

        Ans: b.

        7. Respiratory center depression is caused by all except –

        a. Opium

        b. Strychnine

        c. Barbiturates

        d. Gelsemium

        Ans: b.

        8. Methotrexate resistance occurs by –

        a. Overactivity of the DHFR

        b. Decrease folate reductase

        c. Mutation on thymine kinase

        d. Defect thymidilate kinase

        Ans: a.

        9. Child with phacomelia anomaly due to drug taken by mother –

        a. Tetracycline

        b. Thalidomide

        c. Chloroquin

        d. Quinolones

        Ans: b.

        10. All cause SLE like syndrome except –

        a. INH

        b. Penicillin

        c. Hydralazine

        d. Sulphonamide

        Ans: b.

        11. In over active bladder treatment from choice is –

        a. Darifenacine

        b. Duloxetine

        c. Oxybutinin hydrochloride

        d. Flavoxate

        Ans: a.

        12. About Ramelteon all are true except –

        a. Both MT1, MT2 agonist

        b. Addiction liability

        c. FDA approved for t/t on of insomnia

        d. Cyp50 inhibitor

        Ans: b.

        13. Woman treated with Lithium during pregnancy should be tested for –

        a. Neural tube defects

        b. Cardiac anomalies

        c. Urogenital anomalies

        d. Facial deformities

        Ans: b.

        14. Oryxenergic neuron secrete nueropeptide Y. which of the following is the true statement?

        a. It’s secretion controlled by melotonic receptor

        b. Constitutes 32 amino acid

        c. Increases in starvation

        d. Decreases thermogenesis

        Ans: c.

        PEDIATRICS

        1. A neonate is seen crying with eyes closed and moving all his limbs. What is the neonatal behavioral response scale?

        a. Scale 1

        b. Scale 3

        c. Scale 4

        d. Scale 5

        Ans: b.

        2. A newborn with PDA will not have –

        a. Bounding pulses

        b. Pulmonary hemorrhage

        c. Necrotizing

        d. CO2 washout

        Ans: d.

        3. 3-day infant presents with vomiting on forceful feeding, abdominal distention, refusing feeds. Reducing substance present in urine –

        a. Galactose

        b. Fructose

        c. Glucose

        d. Lactose

        Ans: a.

        4. Baby presents with nasal flares, grunting respiration but no retractions. Silverman score will be

        a. 1

        b. 2

        c. 3

        d. 4

        Ans: d.

        5. In hyaline membrane disease following change occurs –

        a. Increase in FRC and CV

        b. Decrease in FRC and increase in CV

        c. Increase in FRC and reduction in CV

        d. No change in FRC reduction CV

        Ans: b.

        6. A 31 week old premature baby weighing 1.5 kg presents after 2 hrs showing signs of RDS, respiratory rate 70, grunting respiration. What would be the appropriate treatment for this child at this time?

        a. Warm O2 by oxygen hood

        b. Mechanical ventilation

        c. To give surfactant and mechanical ventilation

        d. CPAP

        Ans: c.

        7. Boy presents with pain in left hypochondrium along with blood in stools on 3 occasions every 2 weeks for the past 2 years. Mother gives history of fatigue on playing during these episodes of blood-in-stools. What will aid your diagnosis?

        a. Jaundice

        b. Free fluid in abdomen

        c. Spleenomegaly

        d. Anemia

        Ans: d.

        8. In neonatal respiratory distress syndrome, which of the following is true?

        a. Present after 6 hours of birth

        b. Air bronchogram seen

        c. Seen in term infants

        Ans: b.

        9. 8 yrs old child, no significant past history, BP – 180/110 mmHg, Urea – 89, Creatinine – 2.1, urine shows pus cells 15-20, RBC 1-2, your diagnosis –

        a. PSGN

        b. Idiopathic

        c. RPGN

        d. Reflux nephritis

        Ans: d.

        RADIOLOGY

        1. Radiation exposure is the least in the following procedure -

        a. Micturating cytourethrogram

        b. IVP

        c. Bilateral nephrostogram

        d. Spiral CT for stones protocol

        Ans: a.

        2. Most sensitive test to diagnose ductal carcinoma in situ –

        a. Mammography

        b. MRI

        c. Biopsy

        d. FNAC

        Ans: b.

        3. Patient with 6th cranial nerve palsy, T2 weighed MRI showing hyperintense shadow which shows contrast enhancement in the cavernous sinus, diagnosis is –

        a. Schwannoma

        b. Meningioma

        c. Cavenous hemangioma

        Ans: c.

        4. Which one of the following is not a CT feature of adrenal adenoma?

        a. Low attenuation

        b. Homogenous density and well defined borders

        c. Enhances rapidly, contrast stays in it for relatively longer time and washes out late