FREQUENTLY and RECENTLY asked AIIMS DENTAL QUESTIONS

 1.     The cell Junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecules between two cells are called:

A.   Gap Junctions@@              B.Tight Janctions

C.   Anchoring Junctions            D. Focal Junctions

2.     The cells belonging to the following type of Epithelium are provided with extra reserve of cell membrane:

A.   Transitional @@                       B. Stratified Squamous

C.   Stratified Cuboidal             D. Stratified Columnar

3.     All the following muscles are grouped together as muscle of mastication except:

A.   Buccinator@@  B. Masseter   C. Temporalis   D. Pterygoids

4.     The development of first connection tissue which forms “non synovial joint” is called as:

A.   Syndesmosis                          B. Synchondrosis@@@

C.   Symphysis                             D. Suture

5.     The Buffering capacity of a buffer is maximum at pH equal to

A.   0.5pKa            B. pKa @@         C. pKa+1             D. 2pKa

6.     Which of the following is not a post-transcriptional modification of RNA?

A.   Splicing                                 B. 5'- capping

C.   3'-poly adenylation               D. Glycosylation@@@

7.     The following separation techniques depend on molecular size of proteins?

1. Chromatography on a carboxymethyl cellulose column.
2. Iso-electric focusing
3. Gel Filtration chromatography.@@@
4. Chromatography on a diethylaminoethyl (DAAE) cellulose column.

8.     Oxidation of odd- chain fatty acids produces:

A.    Succinyl CoA                        B. Propionyl CoA

C.    Acetyl CoA                           D. Malonyl CoA@@

9.     The protein rich in basic amino acids which functions in the packaging of DNA in chro mosomes is:

A.    Histone  @@                                             B. Collagen

C.    Hyaluronic acid binding protein        D. Fibrinogen

10. The primary role of chaperones is to help in:

A.    Protein synthesis                 B. Protein degradation

C.    Protein denaturation            D. Protein folding@@

11. The force applied during condensation of amalgam having a condenser measuring 2 mm in diameter:

A.    3-4 lb @@                                                B. 8-17 lb         

C.    10-15 lb                                             D. 7-121b

12. The angles between adhesive and adherent are zero degree. It indicates:

1. Complete wetting of surfaces@@
2. Rough surfaces between adhesive and adherent
3. Irregularities present between the adherent surfaces.
4. The adherent and adhesive molecule are tangent to each other.

13. Which of the following is not a true wax?

A.    Paraffin                             B. Ozokerite

C.    Cocoa butter@@                      D. Candelilla

14. The half life of mercury in human body is:

A.    55 days @@    B. 55 hours        C. 55 week     D. 55 months

15. The diameter of sprue and sub-surface porosity will have:

A.    Direct relationship @@              B. Inverse relationship

C.    Inverse square relationship      D. No relationship

16. The length of sprue and subsurface porosity will have:

A.    Direct relationship               B. Inverse Relationship@@

C.    Inverse square relationship   D. No relationship at all.

17. Which of the following is not true about casting gypsum bonded investment material:

1. It is used for cast metal alloys
2. 50 - 65% of gypsum changes to form α-hemihydrate@@
3. The investment material is not heated above 700° temperature
4. Heating above 700° of investment causes formation of sulphur dioxide from copper sulphate.

18. Which of the following is not correct about dental stone?

1. High strength low expansion dental stone contains some additive to reduce expansion.
2. Dental stone is manufactured by heating at temperature 110°- 120° C in an open auto clave@@.
3. Dental stone is much harder and stronger than B-hemihydrate.
4. Microscopically it is seen as cleavage fragments and crystals in the form of rods and prisms.

19. Like the eutectic transformation, the peritectic reaction is an invariant reaction (i.e. it occurs at a particular composition and temperature). The reaction can be written as:

1. Liquid + β → α@@@
2. Liquid + β →Liquid + α
3. Liquid →  α - solid solution  β -solid solution
4. α  + β →Liquid

20. Which of the following procedures is routine technique for karyotyping using light microscopy?

A.    C-banding                                    B. G - banding@@

C.    Q-banding                                    D. Brd V – Staining

21. An Albino girl gets married to a normal boy. What are the chances of their having an affected child and what are the chances of their children being carriers:

1. None affected, all carriers  @@  
2. All normal
3. 50% carriers                  
4. 50% affected, 50% carriers

22. Osteomalacia is associated with:

1. Decrease in osteoid volume
2. Decrease in osteoid surface
3. Increase in osteoid maturation time@@
4. Increase in mineral opposition rate.

23. In leukemic patient, gingival bleeding occurs during oral prophylaxis because of

1. Increased leukocytes count
2. Increased calcium level in blood
3. Platelet disorder@@@
4. Deficiency of clotting factor

24. The average number of CD4 cells in body fluid is:

A.    4800-1000/mm3              B. 800-1200/mm3@@@

C.    500-800/mm3                  D. 400-600 /mm3

25. Heat labile instruments for use in surgical procedures can be sterilized by:

1. Absolute alcohol                         B. Ultra violet rays

C.   Chlorine releasing compounds   D. Ethylene oxide gas@@

26. A 60 year old man is diagnosed to be suffering from legionnaire’s disease after he returns from attending a convention. He could have acquired it:

1. From a person suffering form the infection while traveling in the aeroplane
2. From a chronic carrier in the convention center
3. From inhalation of the aerosols in the air conditioned room at convention centre@@
4. By sharing an infection towel with a fellow delegate at the convention.

27. The most common micro organism causing sub-acute bacterial endocarditis after oral surgical procedure is:

A.    Streptococcus viridans@@        B. Streptococcus muta

C.    Staphylococcus aureus        D. Staphylococcus albus

28. An anesthetist orders a new attendant to bring the oxygen cylinder. He will attendant to identify the correct cylinder by following color code:

1. Black cylinder with white shoulder@@
2. Black cylinder with grey shoulder
3. White cylinders with black shoulders
4. Grey cylinder with white shoulder

29. 50% eyelid Ptosis, blurring of vision, slurring of speech, indicating the correct level after Diazepam sedation is best explained by:

A.    Tinel’s sign                           B. Verill’s sign@@

C.    Corman’s sign                       D. Bell’s sign

30. All the following statements regarding bioavailability of a drug are true, except:

1. It is the proportion (fraction) of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation
2. Bioavailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing the under curve (o- α) after oral and intravenous (iv) administration.
3. Low oral bioavailability always and necessarily means poor absorption.@@@
4. Bioavailability can be determined from plasma concentration or urinary excretion data.

31. Hemorrhage secondary to heparin administration can be corrected by administration of:

A.    Vitamin K                      B. Whole Blood

C.    Protamine @@                      D. Ascorbic acid

32. The pulp of 1st primary molar contains:

1. 4 pulp horns & 3 root canals@@
2. 3 pulp horns & 3 root canals
3. 2 pulp horns & 2 root canals
4. 2 pulp horns & 3 root canals

33. Which of the following does not contain Taste Buds?

A.    Circumvallate papillae           B. Filliform papillae@@

C.    Fungiform papillae                 D. Foliate papillae

34. The disturbances occurred during “calcification” stage of tooth development are seen in:

A.    Peg lateral                                 B. Microdontia

C.    Supenumery tooth                    D. Interglobular dentin@@

35. Thirty eight children consumed eatables procured form a single source at a picnic party. Twenty children developed abdominal cramps followed by vomiting and watery diarrhea 6-10 hours after the party. The most likely etiology for the outbreak is?

1. Rotavirus infection
2. Entero-toxigenic E-coli infection
3. Staphylococcal toxin
4. Clostridium perfringens infection@@

36. In a post-operative intensive care-unit, five patients develop post- operative wound infection in the same ward. The best method to prevent cross infection in other patients in the same ward is to?

1. Give antibiotics to all other patients in the ward.
2. Fumigate the ward
3. Disinfect the ward with sodium hypochlorite
4. Practice proper hand washing.@@@

37. A 5 years old boy passed 18 loose stools in last 24 hours and twice vomited in last 4 hours. He is irritable but drinking fluids. The optional therapy for this child is:

1. Intravenous fluids
2. Oral rehydration fluids@@@
3. Intravenous fluid initially for 4 hours followed by oral fluids
4. Plain water ad libitum

38. Bedsore is an example of:

A.    Typical ulcer                      B. Trophic ulcer@@

C.    Venous ulcer                      D. Post-thrombotic ulcer

39. The most common histological type of thyroid cancer is:

A.    Medullary type                   B. Papillary type@@

C.    Follicular type                     D. Anaplastic type

40. For the calculation of positive predictive value of a screening test, the denominator is comprised:

1. True positives + False Negatives
2. False Positives + True Negatives
3. True Positives + False Positives@@
4. True Positives + False Positives

41. The parameters of sensitivity and specificity are used for assessing:

A.    Criterion Validity @@                     B. Construct Validity

C.    Discriminate Validity                 D. Content Validity

42. A measure of location which divides the distribution in the ratio of 3:1 is:

A.    Median                           B. First quartile

C.    Third Quartile@@                 D. Mode

43. Chi- Square test is used to measure the degree of:

1. Causal relationships between exposure and effect.
2. Association between two variables.@@
3. Correlation between two variables
4. Agreement between two observations.

44. Elements of primary healthcare include all of the following, except:

1. Adequate supply of safe water and basic sanitation.
2. Providing essential drugs
3. Sound referral system.@@
4. Health education.

45. In water Fluoridation of a Community which of the following sequential order is correct:

1. Decayed tooth, central water supply agency, fluoride concentration in water and community applicant.
2. Decayed tooth, fluoride concentration in water, central water supply agency and community applicant.@@@@
3. Community applicant, decayed tooth, central water supply agency and fluoride concentration in water.
4. Central water supply agency, decayed tooth, community applicant and fluoride concentration in water.

46.  The age of the child used in the determination of child mortality rate is:

A.    0-5 years                             B.1-4 years@@

C.    5-8 years                             D. 0 -I year

47. Primordial prevention is used to:

1. Prevent development of risk factor in the community.@@
2. Prevent the transmission of diseases.
3. Prevent the development of diseases.
4. To establish the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

48.  A tumor occurred in oral cavity which is represented as T3 N2 MO. This tumor is classified as:

A.    Stage I                              B. Stage II

C.    Stage III                           D. Stage IV@@

49.  The characteristic “Multiple punched out lesion” is seen in :

A.    Multiple myeloma @@              B. Hyperparathyroidism

C.    Fibrous Dysplasia               D. Osteosarcoma

50. The other name for factor XI is:

1. Stuart power factor.
2. Calcium ion.
3. Plasma thromboplastin antecedent@@
4. Plasma thromboplastin Component

51. Which of the following sugars present in the human diet is considered the most caries promoting?

A.    Sucrose @@                               B. Fructose

C.    Lactose                                D. Glucose

52. The non-cariogenic substitute used to replace the cariogenic diet is

A.    Lactose                                 B. Glucose

C.    Cooked Starch                      D. Sorbitol@@@

53. Which of the following is most appropriate therapy for a patient suffering from lesions of infectious mononucleosis?

1. Analgesics
2. Antibiotic
3. Anticonvulsant
4. No therapy as it is self limiting disease@@

54. The most common site of oral cancer among Indian population is:

A.    Tongue                                   B. Floor of mouth

C.    Alveolobuccal complex@@          D. Lip

55. The minimum distance used between film, object and target during radiography is:

A.    Four feet                                 B. Five feet@@

C.    Six feet                                    D. Seven feet

56. The normal percentage of enlargement or magnification considered normal in cephalogram is:

A.    1-2%         B. 6-7%  @@       C. 10-13%     D. 14-16%

57. “Syncope” occurs while operative processes due to:

A.    Cerebral edema                 B. Cerebral hyperemia

C.    Cerebral hypoxia @@              D. Cerebral degeneration

58. The straw colored proteinaceous fluid present in odontogenic keratocyst contains protein:

A.    Less than 3.5 gm/dl @@          B. More than 3.5 gm/dl

C.    Less than 3.5 mg/dl           D. More than 3.5 mg/dl

59. Which of the following is used in the management of hemophilic patient?

A.    Tranexamic acid  @@                B. Acetic acid

C.    Ascorbic acid                       D. Palmitoic acid

60. Which of the following is correct reason of facial nerve injury during forceps delivery in labour?

1. The mastoid process is absent at birth@@@
2. The parotid glands is in developing stage
3. The beak of the forceps engages the main trunk of facial nerve.??
4. The sublingual hematoma during delivery causes neuropraxia.

61. The first instrument used on the facial surfaces of gingiva while gingivectomy is:

A.      Orban’s Knife

B.      Kirkland Knife@@

C.      BP blade with no. II blade

D.      BP blade with no.12 blade

62. Oral prophylaxis is contraindicated in:

1. Pre-pubertal gingivitis
2. Pregnancy gingivitis
3. Ulcerative refractory gingivitis??
4. Leukemic gingivitis@@

63. Which of the following is used as a biodegradable membrane in “guided tissue regeneration” process?

1. Polylactic acid@@@
2. Polytetrafluroethylene
3. Millipore
4. Core membrane

64. Which of the following immunoglobulin is present in higher concentration in gingival crevicular fluid?

A.    Ig A                                        B.Ig G@@

C.    Ig E                                         D. Ig M

65. Trauma from occlusion causes:

1. Periodontitis
2. Gingivitis
3. Periodontal pocket
4. Widening of periodontal ligament.@@

66. The local drug delivery system “ELYZOL” contains:

1. Metronidazole@@                          
2. Penicillin
3. Sanguinarine                             
4. Tetracycline

67. The relationship of the denture base that resists dislodgement of denture in horizontal direction is:

A.    Stability @@                           B. Pressure

C.    Support                                   D. Retention

68. Relining of complete denture is not indicated when:

1. Denture contains broken teeth
2. There is excessive resorption of the ridge
3. Vertical dimension is excessively reduced and has to be changed@@
4. Centric relation does not coincide with centric occlusion

69. The most suitable margin design for all ceramic restoration is:

1. Shoulder@@
2. Chamfer
3. Shoulder with bevel
4. Depends upon operators choice

70. In fixed partial denture it is better for posterior pontic to avoid contacts in:

1. Working side contacts
2. Balancing side Contacts@@
3. Side to side contact
4. Centric occlusion

71. The pontic design of choice in the appearance zone of maxillary and mandibular bridge:

1. Hygienic                          
2. Modified ridge lap@@@
3. Saddle                              
4. Conical

72. The pin used in pin restoration of a root canal treated tooth is:

A.    Self threaded pin                B. Cemented pin@@

C.    Frictional pin                     D. TMS pin

73. Which of the following is not responsible for endogenous staining of teeth during development?

1. Tetracycline                       
2. Rh incompatibility
3. Neonatal liver disease         
4. Vitamin C deficiency@@

74. Difference between physical characteristics of reamers and files is:

1. The cross-section of reamers is square and files are triangular in cross section.
2. The numbers of flutes on the blade are more in files than in reamers@@.
3. The reamers have more flutes in the blade.
4. Files have two superficial grooves to produce flutes in a double helix design.

75. The Buckley’s solution is composed of:

1. Cresol, formaldehyde, water and glycerin@@@
2. Formaldehyde, resorcinol, water
3. Iodoform, glutaraldehyde, ZOE
4. Chloraldehyde, parachloral, methanol water

76. A dentist did restorative procedure in a 11 year old child and found the primary molar are in various stages of exfoliation and there is slight anterior crowding present between the anterior teeth. The dentist should give his next appointment:

1. After three months for observation@@
2. After six months for recall checkup
3. After one year
4. When all the permanent teeth will erupt

77. The rectangular wire used in edgewise appliance in primarily meant for:

1. Correction of crown root position@@
2. Increasing the strength of wire
3. Correction of Arch-length Deficiency
4. Used for correction of anterior crowding

78. The buccal coil spring is used to regain the space present between first premolar and first molar. What is the most common complication post treatment?

1. Pain
2. Gingival irritation
3. Tendency for the 1st molar to intrude
4. Tendency for the 1st premolar to rotate@@

79. The arch space for eruption of permanent second and third molar is created by:

1. Apposition of alveolar process
2. Resorption of posterior border of Ramus
3. Resorption of anterior border of Ramus.@@@
4. Apposition of lower body of mandible.

80. The ANB angle of 2 degree usually indicates:

1. A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to Mandibular alveolar base@@
2. A favorable relationship of mandible to cranium.
3. Poor cranial growth
4. Upright incisors

81. Superimposition in cephalometric studies is done from “registration point” This best demonstrates:

1. Growth of structure farthest from point@@
2. Growth of structure nearest to point.
3. Growth at that point
4. Registration of growth level

82. When a maxillary removable orthodontic appliance is first placed, the effect on the patient’s speech will probably include:

1. Difficulty with lingual vowels for a few days.
2. Difficulty with lingual vowel for several weeks.
3. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for a few days.@@
4. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for several weeks.

83. During smile a pleasure carve is formed following the curve of anterior teeth and some portion of mesial surfaces of each tooth is visible. How much percentage of mesial surface teeth is visible during smiling or “Golden Esthetic Rule” is:

A.    50%                                       B. 60%@@

C.    70%                                       D. 80%

84. Cephalometric analysis are used to evaluate growth changes by superimposing on:

A.    Sella-nasion plane  @@             B. Mandibular plane

C.    F-H plane                            D. Occlusal plane

85. The pulse-oxymetry is used in the determination of:

A.    Rate of flow                         B. Oxygen saturation@@

C.    Blood Volume                      D. Blood coefficient

86. The “Stainless Steel Crown” is invented by:

A.    Humphrey @@                           B. Willet

C.    Cvek                                     D. Addleston

87. The non-invasive method to measure the blood flow is:

A.    Electric pulp test                B. Percussion

C.    Radiograph                        D. Laser Doppler flowmetry@@@

88. The KRI paste is composed of:

1. Iodoform, camphor, parachlorophenol and menthol@@@
2. Iodoform and ZOE
3. Parachlorophenol, camphor and menthol
4. Calcium hydroxide and Iodoform.

89. While fabricating bilateral distal shoe appliance for maintaining space lost by primary molar, the first factor considered is:

1. Tooth anatomy
2. Load of distribution???
3. Flexibility of wire
4. Space present posterior to permanent

90. The distribution of dental caries in the best described by:

1. Descriptive and analytical study@@@
2. Descriptive and experimental study
3. Descriptive, analytical and experimental study
4. Analytical and experimental study

91. The muscle that is attached to the disc of TMJ is & which brings about its forward movement is:

A.    Medial pterygoid                    B. Lateral pterygoid@@

C.    Masseter                                  D. Temporails

92. Sublingual salivary gland lies:

1. Superior to Mylohyoid@@@
2. Inferior to Mylohyoid
3. Deep to Geniohyoid
4. In the vestibule

93. Middle constrictor is attached to:

1. A Body of hyoid@@@
2. Pterygomandibular
3. Ramus of the mandible
4. Maxillary tuberosity

94. Early fusion of the coronal suture results in:

1. Brachycephaly
2. Oxycephaly@@
3. Trigonocephaly
4. Scaphocephaly

95. Tongue movement has its primary effect on:

1. Palatoglossus arch@@@
2. Facial musculature
3. Lips
4. Cheeks

96. The lymphatics from lower lip first enter the blood stream through:

1. Inferior labial artery
2. Inferior labial vein
3. Brachicephalic vein@@
4. Pterygoid plexus of veins

97. Vit-K Dependent clotting factors are:

A.    2,7,9,10@@                            B. 3,7,9,10

C.    7, 9, 10, 12                              D. 3, 6,8,10

98. Difference between gelation & liquefaction temperature is called as:

A.    Imbibition                                B. Syneresis

C.    Hysteresis @@@                    D. Adsorption

99. Which of the following impression material requires a hardener?

1. Agar@@@
2. Alginate
3. Elastomers
4. Impression compound

100.        The working time of elastomeric impression material is defined as:

1. The time from the start of the mixing till the material is fully set.
2. The time elapsed from beginning of mixing until curing has advanced
3. The time from start of mixing till just before the elastic properties have fully developed@@@
4. The time elapsed from beginning of mixing until reaction is complete.

ANSWERS

1.     Ans. (A) Gap Junctions: (Ref: Anthony’s textbook of Anatomy and physiology- 14th Ed/Pg 74) “Gap junctions are a type of inter-cellular junction comprising a narrowed portion of about 3 mm. Of the inter cellular space: that contains channels or pores (2nm) composed of hexagonal arrays of membrane spanning proteins around the central lumen (connexon) through which ions and small molecules such as most sugars, amino acids, nucleotides, vitamins, hormones and cyclic AMP.” Dorland’s Pocket medical dictionary – 25thEd/Pg 433:

2.     Ans. (A) Transitional: (Ref: Anthony’s textbook of Anatomy and Physiology –14th Ed/Pg 105, 106) “An extra reserve of cell-membrane is required at sites that are subjected to stress and tension changes such sites like the wall of urinary bladder are typically supplied by transitional epithelium, a stratified tissue; that has the property to cope up with stretching and tension.”

3.     Ans. (A) Buccinator: (Ref: B.D.Chaurasia – 3nd Edition, Vol 3/Pg115) “Muscles of mastication include muscles which move the mandible during mastication and speech, these include”:-(a) Masseter(b) Temporalis(c) Lateral pterygoid(d) Medial pterygoid

4.     Ans. (B) Synchondrosis: (Still searching for a proper reference. Go through the following lines from Inderbir Singh 6th Ed/ 132.) “The tissues of joints are derived from Mesenchyme intervening between developing bone ends. This Mesenchyme may differentiate into fibrous tissue, forming a fibrous joint (Syndesmosis), or into cartilage forming a cartilaginous joint. In the case of some cartilaginous joints (synchondrosis or primary cartilaginous joints), the cartilage connecting the bone is later ossified, with result that the two bones becomes continuous. This is seen, typically, at the joints between the diaphysis and epiphysis of long bones.”

5.     Ans. (B) pKa: (Ref: Harper- 25th Ed/Pg 23) “At values close to pKa the buffer solution resists changes in pH most effectively.”   • Buffers resist a change in pH when proteins are produced or consumed.

• Maximum buffering capacity occurs at I pH unit on either side of pKa.

• Physiologic buffers include bicarbonates, orthophosphates and proteins. -Harper 26th Ed/Pg 13.

6.     Ans. (D) Glycosylation: (Ref: Harper –26th Ed/Pg 355.) Glycosylation has not been mentioned as a post-transistional modification of RNA. 5' - capping: Is required both for efficient translation initiation and protection of 5' - end of MRNA from attack by 5'-3' exonucleases. 3' - poly adenylatlon: Added to 3'-end of mRNA molecules in a post transcriptional processing step. This appears to protect the 3'-end of mRNA from 3' - 5' exo-nuclease attack. Splicing (Removal of introns): Introns or intervening sequences that do not code for proteins are removed. This splicing occurs in the nucleus and serves to bring the exons together. After removal of introns the mature mRNA molecules leave the nucleus.

7.     Ans. (C) Gel Filtration chromatography: (Ref: Harper- 26th Ed/Pg 21, Chatterjee-4th Ed/Pg 73.) “Chromatography is a method of separation of molecules that involves passing a solution through a medium that shows selective absorption for different solute components.” Size - exclusion chromatography / Gel Filtration: Chromatography separates proteins based on their ‘stokes radius’, the diameter of the sphere they occupy as they tumble in solution. It is the function of molecular mass and shape.

8.       Ans. (B) Propionyl CoA: (Ref: Harper- 26th Ed/Pg 181): In  • oxidation, “2” carbon atoms at a time are cleared from Acetyl-CoA molecules, starting at carboxyl end. The chain is broken between the  • 2 and  • 3 carbon atoms. Hence the name  • oxidation. Fatty acid with an odd no. of carbon atoms are oxidized by the pathway of  • Oxidation producing Acetyl CoA, until a three carbon atom molecule propionyl CoA molecule remains. Harper Page No. 182 Similarly end product of  • oxidation of even chain fatty acid is Acetyl CoA. Example - Palmitoyl CoA on oxidation produces eight acetyl CoA after going 7 cycles of • oxidation.

9.     Ans. (A) Histone: (Ref: Harper –25th Ed/Pg 412, 413) “Eukaryotic DNA is associated with - tightly bound basic proteins called histones which serve to order DNA into nucleosomes.” “The Eukaryotic DNA is found in association with basic proteins namely histones to form nucleosomes.”

10.  Ans. (D) Protein folding: (Ref: Harper- 26th Ed/Pg 507, 508) Chaperones are proteins that play a role in proper folding of other proteins without themselves being components of the matter. They stabilize unfolded or partially folder intermediates, allowing them time to fold properly and present in appropriate interactions (prevents formation of incorrectly folded intermediates).

11.  Ans. (A) 3-4 lb: (Ref: Phillips- 11thEd/Pg 529) The condensation forces in the range of 13.3 - 17.8 N [3 - 4 lb] represents the average force employed. To ensure maximum density and adaptation to cavity walls, the condensation force should be as great as the alloy will allow. There are two types of condensation that can be employed:       (a) Hand         (b) Mechanical

The procedures and principles of both the types of condensation are same except that the mechanical condensation is essentially done by an automatic device. One of the advantages of spherical amalgam alloys is that the strength properties tend to be less sensitive to condensation pressure compared to admixed amalgam alloys.

12.  Ans. (A) Complete wetting of surfaces: (Ref: Phillipa –11th Ed/Pg 37, Phillips –10th Ed/Pg 28) Contact angle is the angle formed between the adhesive and the adherent at their interface.

• If the molecules of adhesives are attracted to molecules of adherent as much as, or more than they are to themselves, the liquid adhesive will spread completely over the surfaces of solid and no angle will be formed.

13.  Ans. (C) Cocoa butter: (Ref: Manappalli- 2ndEd/Pg 274, Phillips 11thEd/Pg 285) “True waxes” are those waxes which are derived form “Natural Sources” hence also called as “natural waxes’.  • Natural waxes are derived from mineral, vegetables or animal origins. • Synthetic waxes are chemically synthesized analogs of natural wax molecules.

14.  Ans. (A) 55 days: (Ref: Sturdevant- 4th Ed/Pg 162.) “An average half time of mercury in human body is 55 days”. Other important facts related to mercury:- • Mercury that is absorbed in circulatory system may be deposited in any tissue.

• Higher than average accumulations occur in the brain liver and kidneys.

• In the dental office, the dentist, assistant, hygienist and other staff are at more risk of mercury toxicity than patient because of long term contact with mercury vapour.

15.  Ans. (A) Direct relationship: (Ref: Phillips-11th Ed/Pg 345, Phillips l0th Ed/Pg 520)

16.  Ans. (B) Inverse Relationship: (Ref: Phillip’ s-11thEd/Pg 345, Phillip’s –11th Ed/Pg 520)

17.  Ans. (B) 50 -65% of gypsum changes to form a-hemihydrate: (Ref: Phillips IIth Ed/Pg. 296-297)

The essential ingredients of the dental inlay investment employed with the conventional gold casting alloys are ot-hemihydrate of gypsum, quartz or crysloballite which are allolropic forms of silica.

18.    Ans. (B) Dental stone is manufactured by heating at temperature 110°-120° C in an open autoclave.: (Ref: Phillips-11th Ed/Pg 257,10th Ed/Pgl86) Gypsum when heated at 110-130° →Plaster or stone, heated at 130-200°C →Hexagonal anhydrite, heated at 200- 1000°C →Orthorhombic anhydrite. If gypsum is heated to temperature in the first part of the reaction in an open kiln or an open autoclave a

• Hemihydrate is produced which is irregular and spongy. But in the question it was asked about dental stone which is an

• Hemihydrate which is produced by calcining CaSo4.2H20 in a closed autoclave this leads to significant difference between

• Hemi-hydrate.

19.  Ans. (A) Liquid + β → α : (Ref: Phillips –10th Ed/Pg 340, 11th Ed/Pg 134).: • Like the eutectic transformation true peritectic reaction is an invariant reaction (i.e. it occurs at a particular composition and temperature)

• The reaction can be represented by: Liquid + β → α

• The X phase is a silver rich phase, the B phase is platinum rich and α +β is the two phase region resulting from limited solid solubility. The peritectic transformation occurs at the point P at which the liquid plus the platinum rich β phase transforms into the silver rich a phase.

• Similarly the eutectic reaction can be written as Liquid →Solid solution

20.  Ans. (B) G – Banding: (Ref: Robbins 6th Ed/165, Harshmohan 4th Ed/886) “The most commonly employed staining method uses a Giemsa Stain and hence is called G-banding” A karyotype is a standard arrangement of a photographed or image stained chromosomes, where • Chromosomes are in metaphase stage • Mitosis is arrested in dividing cells in meta phase stage by use of colchicines • In metaphase stage individual chromosomes take the form of two chromatids, connected at the Centromere.

• Chromosomes are arranged in pairs.  • Chromosome pairs are arranged in decreasing order of length.

21.  Ans. (A) None affected, all carriers: (Ref: NCERT text book. Genetic topic-XII standard)

Albinism is an autosomal Recessive disorder

• An albino would thus represented by A+A+               • A normal individual would be represented by A-A-

• A carriers individual would be represented as A+A-

• The possibilities arising out of a marriage between an albino and normal individual would be:

22.  Ans. (C) Increase in osteoid maturation time: (Ref. Indirect reference from Robbin’s and Harshmohan) Osteomalacia: Osteomalacia is characteristically described as a mineralization disorder manifested exclusively by defect in mineralization of newly forming bone. Patho-physiology Abnormal mineralization /decrease in deposition of mineralized bone (i.e. decrease in mineral opposition rate) Matrix continues to be secreted but is not mineralized (i.e. osteoid does not mature or increase in osteoid maturation time.

23.  Ans. (C) Platelet disorder: (Ref: Carranza –9thEd/ Pg 216)

• Gingival hemorrhage is a common finding in leukemic patients, even in the absence of clinically detectable gingivitis.

• Bleeding gingiva can be an early sign of leukemia.

• It is due to the thrombocytopenia that results from replacement of the bone marrow cells by leukemic cells and also from the inhibition of normal stem cell function by leukemic cells or their products.

24.  Ans. (B) 800- 1200/mm3: (Ref: Robbins Basic pathology – 6th Ed/I 24, Figs. 5 -37)

• The normal CD4 count is ranging form 8W - 1200/mm3       • Less than 500/mm3 counts show symptoms of HIV infection.

• People with healthy immune system usually have more than 950 CD4 cells/ul of blood. - Ref. Park 18th Ed /278.

25.  Ans. (D) Ethylene oxide gas: (Ref: Medial Microbiology by Greenwood 12th Ed/ 61)

Ethylene oxide

• It is a highly penetrative non corrosive, microbiocidal gas                                         • It acts as an alkylating agent

• It is effective against all types of micro organism including virus and spores.          • It is used for:

26.  Ans. 26. (C) From inhalation of the aerosols in the air conditioned room at convention centre: (Ref: Anantnarayan 6th / 377)

• Legionella ( a gram negative, motile, non encapsulated bacilli)

• Survives and multiply inside free living amoeba and protozoa, distributed in natural reservoirs such as stagnant water, mud, hot springs.

• Aerosols from these natural reservoirs, inhaled by humans serve as the most common source of infection in men.

• Man to Man transmission does not occur, “outbreaks have been associated with

• No animal reservoir occurs contaminated water sources such as air

• Disease is limited to humans conditioning cooling towers”- CMDT/2002/148

27.  Ans. (A) Streptococcus viridans: (Ref: Harrison’s –16th Ed/Pg 823) “S.viridans which is a part of the normal oral flora is important agent of sub acute bacterial en-docarditis.”

28.  Ans. (A) Black cylinder with white shoulder: (Ref: Lee’s anesthesia –12th Ed. / pg 104, 105): Gas Color of Cylinder.

1. Oxygen Black body, white shoulder   2. Air Grey body, black and white shoulder   3. N20 Blue   4. Entonox (50% 02+50% N20) Blue body, white and blue quartered shoulder    5. Cyclopropane Orange   6. Carbon dioxide Grey    7. Thiopentone Yellow   8. Halothane Amber (purple and red) - Please remember this chart as this is not given in frequently used textbooks.

29.  Ans. (B) Verill’s sign: (Ref. Neelima Malik IstEd. /650)

Verill’s Sign: 3 symptoms

• 50% eyelid Ptosis • Blurring of vision

• Slurring of speech, indicating the correct level after Diazepam sedation. Corman’s Sign:

• Seen in Mandibular Fracture.     • Ecchymosis in the lingual sutures is pathognomic of mandibular fracture.

30.  Ans. (C) Low oral bioavailability always and necessarily means poor absorption: (Ref: K.D.T. – 5th Ed /Pg No. 15)

Bioavailability: (Katzung- 8th Ed. Pg. No. 42) Bioavailability refers to the rate and extent of absorption of a drug from a dosage form as determined by its concentration - time curve in blood or by its excretion in urine. It is a measure of the fraction (F) of administered dose of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation in the unchanged form.

31.  Ans. (C) Protamine: (Ref. USP — Drug information for health care professionals) (K.D.T- 5th Ed/ Page 564.) Protamine is indicated in the treatment of severe Heparin overdose resulting in hemorrhage,

• Termination of bleeding following administration of oral anticoagulants e.g. warfarin is done by Vit. K ( phytonadione)

32.  Ans. (A) 4 pulp horns & 3 root canals: (Ref: Wheeler’s 6th Ed. /59, Arup K Das Ist Ed/61)

“First primary molar contains usually 4 cusps, a pulp horns and three roots” - The pulp chambers of deciduous teeth are larger and pulp horns are placed in higher position.

- The enamel pulp and dentin thickness is limited making the pulp chambers shallow.

- The pulp canals are wider and the apical portion of the canal is much less constricted than that of permanent teeth.

- The roots of primary molars are longer, slender more divergent and flared to accommodate the developing permanent tooth crowns.

33.  Ans. (B) Filliform papillae: (Ref. Orban’s –11th Ed/Pg. 307) Taste buds are numerous on inner walls of the trough surrounding the Vallate papillae, in the folds of foliate papillae, in the posterior surface of epiglottis and on some of fungiform papillae tip and lateral borders of tongue. Taste buds:-These are small, ovoid or barrel-shaped intra-epithelial organs, about 80 um high and 40 um thick. Taste Location

Sweet Tip of tongue                                                                          Salty Lateral borders of tongue

Bitter and sour on palate and posterior border of tongue                  Bitter in middle and sour on lateral areas of tongue

34.    Ans. (D) Interglobular dentin: (Ref: Orban’s – 11th Ed. /117) This is an easy one to answer, as we all can easily exclude the rest. So just to refresh your knowledge with few points here: - Peg shaped lateral: - Ref. Orban’s 11th Ed/47

It is due to disturbances in morpho- differentiation. It is due to failure of middle/ central lobe of the tooth to develop.

- Interglobiilar dentin: - Sometimes mineralization ofdentin begins in small globular area that fails to coalesce into honnogeneous masses, which results in zone ofhypo mineralization between the globules. Hence, it shows that the interglobular dentin is a result of defect in calcification.

35.  Ans. (D) Clostridium perfringens infection: (Ref: Harrison’s-15th Ed/Pg 837)

Clostridium perf’ringens infection characteristically presents after 8 to 16 hours* of consumption of food material and causes abdominal cramps, followed by diarrhea. Vomiting as well may occur though rare. Thus all features presented in question are consistent with a diagnosis of clostridium perfringens infection

36.  Ans. (D) Practice proper hand washing: (Ref. Harrison’s –16th Ed. Page 776) The mode of transmission most often is either cross-infection (e.g. indirect spread of pathogen from one patient to another on the inadequately cleaned hand of hospital personnel) or autoinoculation.(E.g. Aspiration of oro-pharyngeal flora into the lungs along an endotracheal tube.)

Given the importance of cross infection hand washing is the single most effective preventive measure in the hospital

37. Ans. 37. (B) Oral rehydration fluids: (Ref. O.P. Ghai 5th Ed/Page 249,250)

Here, we see that the child is irritable but drinking fluids. He thus falls in the category of some dehydration and needs to be managed in accordance with plan B. Treatment plan B is oral rehydration therapy and hence the answer.

38.  Ans.  (B) Trophic ulcer: (Ref. Short cases by S.Das , Bailey & Love 24th Ed/939 2nd Ed. 46) “Trophic ulcers are neurogenic ulcers which are caused by various factors such as impairment of nutrition of the tissues inadequate blood supply and neurological deficit” Bedsore is included in the groups of “trophic ulcers”

39.  Ans. (B) Papillary type: (Ref. Robbins 7th Ed/1178, Bailey & Love 24th Ed./ 797) “Papillary carcinomas are the most common types of thyroid cancer”. They occur mostly in 20’s - 40’s of life and accounts for majority of thyroid carcinomas associated with previous exposure to ionizing radiation.

40.  Ans. (C) True Positives + False Positives : (Ref. Park – 18th Ed. /117, Park –17th Ed./111)

41.  Ans. (A) Criterion Validity: (Ref: Dictionary of Public Health by J. Kishore /559) Criterion Validity Extent to which the measurements correlate with an external criterion of the phenomenon under study. Two aspects of criterion validity are seen:-

(a) Concurrent validity: - Measurement and criterion refer to the same point of time.

(b) Predictive Validity: - The measurement validity is expressed in terms of its ability to predict the criterion.

42.  Ans. (C) Third Quartile: (Ref. Mahajan-biostatistics) (Quartiles denote division of entire range of distribution into four parts of equal probability by three equidistant points. Quartile: Will have 25% observations to the left and 75% to the right. 2nd Quartile: Will have 50% observations on either side. 3rd Quartile: Will have 75% observations to the left 25% on the right.

- The division in question is 3:1. This would mean three observations stand to the left and one of the right in a range of 4 (3+1) i.e. third quartile.

- First quartile would divide the observations in a ratio of 1:3 and not 3:1.

- Median is the mid value when values are arranged either in an ascending or descending order.

- Mode is the most commonly occurring value.

43.  Ans. (B) Association between two variables: (Ref. Park 18th / Page 650)

- The chi-square test is used to measure the qualitative data not quantitative data.

- The test of association between two events is the most important application of the chisquare test is statistical method.

- It measures the probability of association between two discrete attributes

- The chi-square test assumes that no association occurs between two events in question unless proved otherwise – Null Hypothesis.

44.  Ans. 44. (C) Sound referral system.: (Ref. Park 18th Ed/Pg 28) The concept of primary health care came into limelight in 1978 following an international conference in Alma- Ata (USSR).

• The primary health care approach is based on principles of social equity, nationwide coverage, self reliance, inter-sectorial co-ordination and people’s involvement in planning.

45.  Ans. (B) Decayed tooth, fluoride concentration in water, central water supply agency and community applicant

We don’t think there is need for any reference for this question, as it is the only logical sequence. Go through chapter fluoride from Sober Peter as this chapter is considered very important from entrance exam point of view.

46.  Ans. (B) 1-4 years: (Ref: Park-18th Ed. /23.) Child Mortality Rate:

• Another indicator related to the overall health status is the early childhood (1 - 4 years) mortality.

• It is defined as the number of deaths at ages 1 -4 years in a given year, per 1000 children in that age group at the mid-point of the year concerned.

47.  Ans. (A) - Prevent development of risk factor in the community (Ref: Park-18th Ed. /37.) Primordial Prevention

• Primordial Prevention a new concept is receiving special attention in the prevention of chronic diseases. *

• This primary prevention in its purest sense, that is prevention of the emergence or development of risk factor in countries or population groups in which they have not appeared.

• For example, many adult health problems (e.g. obesity, hypertension) have their early origins in childhood, because this is the time when lifestyles are formed (for example, smoking, eating patterns, physical exercise)

• In primordial prevention, efforts are directed towards discouraging children from adopting harmful lifestyles. The main intervention in primordial prevention is through individual and mass education.

48.  Ans. (D) Stage IV: (Ref: Harrison-16th Ed, table no. 87- 1, Pg. No. 505).

REGIONAL LYMPH NODES (N)

NX Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed                          NO No regional lymph node metastasis

N l Metastasis in a single Ipsilateral lymph node,3 cm or less in greatest dimension

N2 Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, more than 3 cm but not more than 6 cm in greatest dimension; or in multiple ipsilateral lymph nodes, none more than 6 cm greatest dimension; or in bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes, none more than 6 cm in greatest dimension

N2a Metastasis in single ipsilateral lymph node more than 3 cm but more than 6 cm in great dimension

N2b Metastasis in multiple ipsilateral lymph nodes, none more than 6 cm in greatest dimension

N2c Metastasis in bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes, none more than 6 cm in greatest dimension

N3 Metastasis in a lymph node more than 6 cm in greatest dimension

DISTANT METASTASIS (M)

MX Presence of distant metastasis cannot be assessed                  MO No distant metastasis                MI Distant metastasis

STAGE GROUPING

Stage 0 Tis N0 M0 Stage IV T4 N0 M0         Stage I Tl N0 M0 T4 Nl M0          Stage II T2 N0 M0 Any T N2 M0

Stage III T3 N0 M0 Any T N3 M0         T1 Nl M0 Any T Any N M1             T2 Nl M0             T3 Nl M0

49.  Ans. (A) Multiple myeloma (Ref. Shafer 4th Ed. / Pg No. 192) Roentgenographic Features of multiple myeloma Roentgenographic, examination will usually reveal numerous sharply punched-out areas in a variety of bones, which may include the vertebrae, ribs, skull, jaws and ends of long bones.

50.  Ans. (C) Plasma thromboplastin antecedent: (Ref. Shafer- 4th Ed/745, Burkits- 10th Ed/462 table no. 17.5)

51.  Ans. (A) Sucrose: (Ref: Shobha Tandon 1st Ed/225): • The patient diet and dental caries activity are related. From the dietetic view point, dental caries widely accepted as being caused by the ingestion of fermentable carbohydrates, particularly sucrose.

• Fermentable carbohydrates and more specifically sucrose are rarely eaten as such. They are eaten as components of foods that contain other ingredients and have different textures.

• The cariogenic potential of foods containing sucrose, have the ability to

- Be retained by teeth        - Form acids          - Dissolve enamel         - Neutralize or buffer acids.

52.  Ans. (D) Sorbitol: “The alcohol derivatives have been added as substitute for cariogenic diet”

53.  Ans. (D) No therapy as it is self limiting disease: (Ref. Shafer’s 4th Ed. /Page No. 740) According to Shafer’s the following lines will prove the answer D is correct one. “There is no specific treatment for this disease. The various antibiotics have been used without great success. Bed rest and adequate diet are probably of as great a benefit as any other form of therapy. The disease generally runs its course in two to four weeks and there seldom are complications’

54.  Ans. (C) Alveolobluccal complex: (Ref.ASI/ Page No. 348) According to the textbook of surgery by Association of surgeons of India various cancers of oral cavity are reported with following frequency

    Buccal inucosa - 38% Anterior tongue - 16% Lower alveolus - 15.7%

55.  Ans. (B) Five feet: (Ref. Bhalaji 3rd Ed. /Pgl45. White and pharaoh 4th Ed. /Pg 95) “The distance between the X-ray source and the mid-sagittal plane of the patient is Fixed at 5 feet (152.4cm)” - Bhalaji 3rd Ed/Pg 145. “For Cephalometric applications the distance should he 152.4 cm (60 inches or 5 feet) between the X-ray source and the mid-coronal plane of the patient.”

56.  Ans. (B) 6-7%: (No direct reference found...) A magnification of 5 - 7% is considered normal. This question has been directly taken from question and answer series of National boards. This question has also been asked in PGI - 05

57.  Ans. (C) Cerebral hypoxia: (Ref. Davidson’s- 18th Ed./225, Ref. Monheims- 7th Ed. /238)

- Cerebral syncope is caused by a sudden drop in cardiac output and cerebral perfusion due to an arrhythmia or a mechanial problem.

- Inappropriate Vasodilatation also causes symptoms by reducing cerebral perfusion”- (Davidson 18th Ed. 225)

- Syncope or fainting is perhaps the most frequently complication associated with local anesthesia in the dental office.

- This is a form of neurogenic shock and is cause by cerebral ischemia secondary to vasodilatation or an increase in the peripheral vascular bed, with a corresponding drop in blood pressure -(Monheims 7th Ed. / 238)

58.  Ans. (A) Less than 3.5 gm/dl: (Ref. Neelima Malik- Ist Ed/404) Cystic contents (aspirate) of odontogenic keratocyst.

- Odontogenic keratocyst contain a dirty white viscoid suspension of keratin, which has an appearance of pus, but without an offensive smell.

- The smear should be stained and examined for keratin cells.

- Electrophoresis will reveal low protein content which is mostly albumin.

- Total protein will be found to be below 4gm/100ml

59.  Ans. (A) Tranexamic acid: (Ref. Neelima Malik 1st Ed. /681): Treatment of Hemophilic patients for surgical procedures.

- The recommended level of replacement therapy of factor VIII varies from 30 to 75%

- For extensive surgical procedures, the levels of factor should be raised to 50 to 75%

- Each unit of factor VIII transfused is estimated to raise Factor VIII levels 2% per kg of body weight.

- Local haemostatic measures such as application of topical thrombin, surgical or gel foam is indicated

60.  Ans. (A) The mastoid process is absent at birth: (Ref: Dutta- Obs and Gynecology-5th Ed. /591): “Mastoid process starts developing after two years of birth so the facial nerve remains unprotected after it exits from stylomastoid foramen. It is involved by direct pressure of forceps blade or by hemorrhage and edema around the nerve” This makes it clear that the reason of facial nerve injury during forceps delivery in labour is due to the absence of mastoid process at birth.

61.  Ans. (B) Kirkland Knife: (Ref.-Carranza 9th Ed./ 749) Surgical gingivectomy

Step 1: The pocket of each surface is explored with a periodontal probe and market with a pocket marker- Crane Kaplan.

Step 2 :Periodontal knives (e.g. Kirkland knives) are used for incisions on the facial and lingual surfaces and those to distal to the terminal tooth in the arch.

• Orbans periodontal knives are used for supplemental interdental incisions, if necessary.

• And Bard Parker knives 11 and 12 and scissors are used as auxiliary instruments.

Thus the first instrument used in gingivectomy procedure is Periodontal probe and Pocker marker but as it is not given in the options provided the answer is “Kirkland knife”

62.  Ans. (D) > (C): (Ref. Carranza 9th Ed) There is a confusion between the answer (C) ulcerative refractory gingivitis and (D) leukemic gingivitis go through the following lines from the book. Treatment of ANUG- First visit: Pg. 623

• During initial visit cotton pellet is used in sweeping motion over large areas to remove debris. The area is cleaned with warm water, the superficial calculus is removed with ultrasonic scaler. “Subgingival scaling and curettage are contra indicated at this time because of possibility of extending the infection to deeper tissues and also of causing a hacteraemia”

63.  Ans. (A) Polylactic acid: (Ref. Curranza 9th Ed. /809. 810) Biodegradable membrane used in GTR

- Rat collagen           - Bovine Collagen           - Cartilage membrane        - Polylactic acid            - Vycril (Polyglactic - 910)

- Synthetic Skin (Biobrane)         - Freeze-dried duramater          - Osseo quest         - Gore Co. (Polyglycolic acid, Polylactic acid)

- Trimethylene carbonate         - Bioguide           - Osteohealth co. (Bi-layer, porcine-derived collagen)           - Astrisorb

- Block drug Co. (Prolactic acid gel)           - Bio mend etc

64.  Ans. (B) Ig G: (Ref. Carranza 9th ED./259) “Salvia, like GCF, contains antibodies that are reactive with indigenous oral bacterial species. Although Immunoglobulin found in salvia is Immunoglobulin A (IgA). However IgG is more prevalent in GCF”

65.  Ans. (D) Widening of periodontal ligament: (Ref. Carranza 9th Ed. /377) Clinical and Radiographic signs of trauma from occlusion alone: Clinical signs:

•The most common clinical sign of trauma from occlusion is increased tooth mobility due to destruction of periodontal fibres.

• In final stage, the accommodation of the periodontium to increased forces entails widening of periodontal ligament which also leads to increased tooth mobility.

66.  Ans. (A) Metronidazole: (Ref: Carranza 9th Ed. /683) Table No. 50 - 3: Currently available or investigational, locally delivered antimicrobials for periodontal therapy:

67.  Ans. (A) Stability: (Ref. Boucher’s 10th Ed. / 16V. Nallaswamy Ist Ed. /64) Let’s discuss each option separately: A. Stability:

Stability refers especially to the ability of denture to resist horizontal forces that tend to alter the relationship between the denture base and its supporting foundation in a horizontal or rotatory direction.

68.  Ans. (C) Vertical dimension is excessively reduced and has to be changed: (Ref: Nallaswamy/2 38. Boucher 11th Ed. /390)

Relining

1. Indications

• Immediate dentures after 3 - 6 months where maximum residual ridge resorption would have occurred

• When the adaptation of the dentures to the ridge is poor due to residual ridge resorption

• Economical reasons where the patient cannot afford a new denture

• Geriatric or chronically ill patient who cannot withstand physical and mental stress construction of new dentures.

2. Contraindications

• When the residual ridge has resorbed excessively                         • Abused soft tissue due to an ill -fitting denture

• Temporo-Mandibular joint problems                                            • Patient dissatisfied with the appearance of the existing denture

• Dentures causing major speech problems                                     • Severe osseous undercuts

69.  Ans. (A) Shoulder: (Ref. Shillingburg- 3rd Ed. / 132) Finish Lines Indications

1. Shoulder All ceramics crowns, Porcelain fused to metal crowns, Injectable porcelains.

2. Shoulder with bevel Proximal boxes of onlays and inlays. Labial finish line of metal ceramics, Occlusal shoulder of onlays.

3. Chamfer Cast metal restoration, Lingual aspect of metal ceramics

4. Knife edge Young patients, MOD onlay, Inaccessible areas, Finish lines in cementum.

70.  Ans. (B) Balancing side Contacts: (Ref: Tylman 8thEd /363)

“In FPD, it is better for posterior pontic to avoid balancing side contacts”*

“In FPD the balancing side contacts were eliminated on posterior teeth” –Nallaswamy page 532.

• In FPD it is better for posterior pontic to avoid contacts in balancing side

• Centric relation is most reproducible relation of the jaws that is used in FPD construction.

• In centric relation deflective contacts are corrected first.*

• A cusp should be reduced if it is deflective in centric and eccentric position

• BULL technique is used to reduce the cusps when interference is on working side contacts of Laterotrusive contacts

• When mandible is closed shut forcibly from a opening movement, the position achieved by it is called centric occlusion.

71.  Ans. (B) Modified ridge lap: (Ref. Nallaswamy 1st Ed./Pg 510, Ref. Tylman 8th Ed. /Pg 360) In the mandibular anterior region when there is minimal bone loss and esthetics are involved modified ridge lap is the preferable design, when there is extensive bone loss modified ridge lap with no embrasures is preferable design. Saddle pontic:

• The concave gingival surface overlaps the ridge buccally and lingually.

• The gingival surface will not have continuous contact, only the buccal and lingual end gingival surface will contact the tissue of ridge.

• It is the least hygienic pontic.

72.  Ans. (B) Cemented pin: (Ref: Sturdevant- 2ndEd. /Page. 373.) “Because the cemented pin does not produce internal stress and craze lines in the dentin, it is the pin of choice for use in the restoration of root canal treated teeth.” Types of pins are cemented, friction locked and self threading pins. The diameters and extensions of pins have been discussed elsewhere. Here we present a few other points: Retention of pins in ascending order: Cemented pin < Friction locked pins < self threading pins

Pulpal Stress: Self threading pin > friction locked pins > cemented

- TMS (Thread mate System) is the most widely used self threading pin.                      - TMS pin sizes

- Minikin - 0.48 mm (0.019 inch)                 - Minuta - 0.38 mm (0.015 inch)                - Minim - 0.61 mm (0.024 inch)

- Pin extension into dentin and amalgam greater than 2 mm is unnecessary for pin retention and is contraindicated to preserve the strength of the dentin and amalgam(AIPG-2007) Questions regarding pin retained restoration are frequently asked in All India examination. So please go through the whole chapter on this in Sturtevant 4th and 5th edition.

73.  Ans. (D) Vitamin C deficiency: (Ref. Grossman 11th Ed. /271) Cause of tooth discoloration:

1. Local causes

• Decomposition of pulp tissue  • Excessive hemorrhage following pulp removal     • Trauma    • Medicaments   • Filling materials

2. Systemic causes

(a) Congenital porphyria Red or purple discoloration          (b) Hereditary opalescent dentin Violaceous

(c) Endemic flourosis Mottled brown                                  (d) Erythroblastosis fetalis (Rh incompatibility) Grayish brown

(e) Jaundice (Liver disease) Brown                                     (f) Tetracycline (Irreversible discoloration) ellow to gray or brown

74.  Ans. (B) The numbers of flutes on the blade are more in files than in reamers: (Ref: Grossman 11th Ed/ 195)

75.  Ans. (A) Cresol, formaldehyde, water and glycerin: (Ref: Shoba Tandon –11thEd/Pg 342) Buckley’s formula of formocresol used today is 1/5 concentration i.e. 20% formocresol Its composition is:

• Cresol 35%                       • Formaldehyde 19%                           • Water glycerin 15%

77.  Ans. (A) After three months for observation: (Ref: National boards series-Q. no. 16, March 1980 paper)

77.  Ans. (A) Correction of crown root position: (Ref. Proffit- 2nd Ed/Pg 343) Edgewise : “To overcome the deficiencies of the ribbon arch, Angle reoriented the slot from vertical to horizontal and inserted a rectangular wire rotated 90 degrees to the orientation it had with the ribbon arch-thus the name “edgewise”. The dimensions of the slot were altered to 22 X 28 mils, and a 22 X 28 precious metal wire was used. These dimensions were arrived at after extensive experimentation and allowed excellent control of crown and root position in all three planes of space. (PGI-Dec’05)

78.  Ans. (D) Tendency for the 1st premolar to rotate: (Ref: National boards series-Q. no.2, March 1980 paper)

79.  Ans. (C) Resorption of anterior border of Ramus: (Ref. Bhalajhi 3rd Ed/ Pg 33) Post natal growth of Ramus of mandible:

• The ramus moves progressively posterior by a combination of deposition and resorption.

• Resorption occurs on the anterior part of the ramus while bone deposition occurs on the posterior region. This results in a ‘drift’ of the ramus in a posterior direction.

80.  Ans. (A) It is normal angle and represents relationship of alveolar process of mandible

(Ref: Bhalajhi- 3rd Ed/ 154, National hoards series-Q no.23, March 1980 paper) A.N.B angle

This angle is formed by the intersection of lines joining nasion to point A and nasion to point B

• It denotes the relative position of the maxilla and mandible to each other                         • The mean value is 2°.

• An increase in this angle is indicative of a class II skeletal tendency while an angle that is less than normal or a negative angle is suggestive of a skeletal class III relationship.

81.  Ans. (A) Growth of structure farthest from point: (Ref. Bhulajhi 3rd Ed/Pg 148): Broadbent registration point is the midpoint of the perpendicular from the center of sella turcica to the Bolton’s plane. Super imposition in cephalometric studies is done from “registration point” and it demon strates growth of structures farthest from the paint.

82.  Ans. (C) Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for a few days: (Ref: National boards series-Q. no.24, March 1980 paper)

When a new appliance is place initially the patient will have difficulty in speech involving linguoalveolar consonants like t. d etc.

83.  Ans. (B) 60%: (Ref. Sturdevant- 4th Ed/Pg 596) In addition to being symmetric, anterior teeth must be in proper proportion to one another to achieve maximum esthetics. However one long accepted theorem of relative proportionality of maxillary anterior teeth typically visible in a smile involves the concept of the “golden proportion”.

• Originally formulated as one of Euclid’s formula it has been relied upon through the ages as a geometric basis for proportionality in the beauty of art and nature.

• Based on this formula a smile, when viewed from the front, is considered as aesthetically pleasing if each tooth in that smile (starting from midline) is approximately 60% of the size of the tooth immediately mesial to it.

• The exact proportion of the smaller tooth is 0.618.

• It must be emphasized that these proportions are based on the apparent sizes of the teeth when viewed straight on and not the actual sizes of the individual teeth.

• An accepted theorem for achieving esthetically pleasing central incisors maintains that the ideal width to length ratio should be 0.75: 0.8. This ratio represents the ideal proportion needed to optimize the esthetic result.

84.  Ans. (A) Sella-nasion plane: (Ref. Proffit- 2nd Ed/Pg 174) “Sella-nasion plane/SN plane represents the anterior cranial base. The growth of anterior cranial base is completed much earlier compared to facial structures so the SN plane is taken as most stable area to compare the growth changes of facial structure and jaws” The following lines form Proffit will explain the answer: Cranial base superimposition, allows the relationship of maxilla and mandible to the cranium to be evaluated. In general the most useful approach is to superimpose on the SNP line, registering the template over the patients tracing at nasion rather than sella if there is difference in cranial base length.

85.  Ans. (B) Oxygen saturation: (Ref: Shohha Tandon 1st Ed/Pg 338)

• A direct measurement of pulp circulation is the only real measure of pulp vitality.

• Pulse-oxymetry is a completely objective test requiring no subjective response from the patient that directly measures blood oxygen saturation levels

• To determine oxygen saturation, the pulse-oxymeter measures and compares amplitudes of the ratios of transmitted infra-red light with red light.

• The ratio varies with relative fractions of oxygen saturated to unsaturated hemoglobin and used to calculate oxygen saturation.

86.  Ans. (A) Humphrey: (Ref. Shobha Tandon,1stEd-Reprint/314)

- Stainless steel crown was introduced by Humphrey in 1950.- Willet - 1st developed distal shoe space maintainer (AIPG - 2006)

   - Cvek- Developed the technique of partial pulpotomy(AIPG - 2006) -Addleston -Tell show do technique of Behavior management.

87.  Ans. (D) Laser Doppler flowmetry: (Ref. Shobha Tandon, 1st Ed/332) Low Doppler Flowmetry

• The laser Doppler flowmetry, developed in the 1970 to measure the velocity of red blood cells in capillaries, is a non invasive, objective, painless alternative to traditional neural stimulation methods and therefore a promising test for young children.

88.  Ans. (A) Iodoform, camphor, parachlorophenol and menthol: (Ref. Shobha Tondon, 1stEd/354 - Table No. 8: II)

• Walkhoff paste: parachlorophenol. Camphor. Menthol.                   • KRI paste: lodoform, Camphor, parachlorophenol, menthol.

• Maisto: Zinc oxide, Iodoform, thymol, chlorophenol, camphor, lanolin.  • Vitapex: Calcium hydroxide, iodoform, oily additives.

89.  Ans. (B) Load of distribution: Still searching for the proper reference.

• Logically tooth anatomy will not have any bearing on bilateral distal appliance.

• Flexibility of wire is not a factor in distal shoe appliance fabrication.

• Space present posterior to permanent first molar will not cause any change in fabrication of bilateral distal shoe appliances

90.  Ans. (A) Descriptive and analytical study: (Ref: Soben Peter 2nd Ed/page 92): “A descriptive study is one that attempts to do no more than describe the pattern of occurrence of a disease or a condition relative to other characteristics of the population. For example a study conducted for measuring the degree of dental caries in a school district relative to the age, sex and socio- economic characteristics of the children.” Descriptive studies are usually the first phase of any epidemiological investigation. Discovering the cause of the disease and the ways in which these could be modified comprises under analytical study.

91.  Ans. (B) Lateral pterygoid: (Ref: B.D. Chaurasia, 3rd Ed, Vol III/Pg 117) Repeat AIPG 2007- Q8 “The fibres of Lateral pterygoid are attached to the anterior margin of the disc & capsule of TMJ.” Ref: B.D. Chaurasia, 3rd Ed, and Vol lll/Pg 117 states that “The Lateral & Medial pterygoid muscles of both the sides acting together protrude the mandible.”

92.  Ans. (A) Superior to Mylohyoid: (Ref: B.D. Chaurasia, 3rd Ed, Vol lll/Pg 133) Repeat AIPG 2007- Q9

Sublingual salivary gland: • It is the smallest of the three major salivary glands  • It is “Almond shaped”  • It weighs about 3-4 g

• Lies above the Mylohyoid, below the mucosa of the floor of the mouth, medial to the sublingual fossa of the mandible & lateral to the Geniohyoid.

• About 15 ducts emerge from the gland. Most of them emerge open directly in to the floor of the mouth on the summit of the sublingual fold.

93.    Ans. (A) Body of hyoid: (Ref: B.D. Chaurasia, 3rd Ed, Vol lll/Pg 188) Repeat AIPG 2007- Q11

The middle constrictor takes origin from:

• The lower part of the Stylohyoid ligament

• Lesser cornua of the hyoid bone                         • Upper border of the greater cornua of the hyoid bone

94.  Ans. (B) Oxycephaly: (Ref: I.B.Singh, Embryology-6th Ed/Pg 130)

Oxycephaly: in which, premature union of coronal sutures results in pointed skull.

Scaphocephaly: due to premature union of sagittal suture, gives rise to a “boat-shaped” skull.

Plagiocephaly: due to asymmetric union of the sutures resulting in twisted skull

Microcephaly: due to failure of brain growth, so skull remains small

Anencephaly: due to absence of greater part of vault of skull.

95.  Ans. (A) Palatoglossus arch                               96.    Ans. (C) Brachicephalic vein

97.  Ans. (A) 2, 7,9,10: (Ref: Satyanarayana/Pg 128,129) Repeat AIPG 2007. Q19

• Vit K is the only fat soluble vitamin with a specific coenzyme function

• It is taken in the diet or synthesized by the intestinal bacteria.

• Its absorption takes place along with fats & is dependent on bile salts.

98.  Ans. (C) Hysteresis: (Ref: https://decs. nhgl. med. navy. mil/DMNOTES/aqueous.pdf) Repeat AIPG 2007-Q32

The difference between gelation & liquefaction temperature is called Hysteresis.

This makes agar to be used as impression material.

99.  Ans. (A) Agar: Repeat AIPG 2007- Q33, Ref Q31 also.

Composition of agar: Component 

                                     Function

Agar   ;                      Borates  ; Potassium Sulphate   ;Wax, hard    ;Thixotropic material   Water

Brush heap structure ;Strength  ;Gypsum hardener; Filler ;   Thickener       ; Reaction medium

100.            Ans. (C) The time from start of mixing till just before the elastic properties have full; developed: (Ref: Phillips-11th Ed/Pg 210) Repeat AIPG 2007- Q34: “The working time, begins at the start of mixing & ends just before the elastic properties have developed; must exceed the time required for mixing, filling the syringe &/ or tray, injecting the material on to the tooth preparation, & seating the tray.” Setting time can be described as the time elapsed from the beginning of mixing until curing has advanced sufficiently so that impression can be removed from the mouth with a minimum of distortion.