AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 DENTAL PAPER...,

please correct me if iam wrong and clarify my doubts..., 

ANATOMY

Q1. all muscles attach to oblique line of thyroid cartilage EXCEPT:

a. thyrohyoid

b. middle constrictor

c. superior constrictor @@@?

d. sternothyroid

e. inferior constrictor

Q2.Infection from lower lip first reaches thr blood stream thru..?

a. Inferior labial artery

b. Inferior labial vein

c. Brachiocephalic vein@@@?

d. Pterygoid plexus

Q3.infection from dangerous area of face goes to cavernous sinus thru

a.pterygoid plexus@@@

b. ethmoid

c. max. sinus

d ??

Q4.which of following is dangerous area for oromaxillofacial infections...

a. carotid sheath

b. space post to carotid sheath in the post triangle

c. post to prevertebral area

d.btwn the alar plate and prevertebral fascia@@@

PHYSIO

Q5.tuft cells r receptors seen on 

a TMJ

b.lining of max sinus 

c. cell rich zone 

d.excretory duct of salivary gland@@@?

BIOCHEM

MICRO

PATHO

Q6. nodal metastasis on a CT is shown as all except:

a. necrotic node@@@??

b. >6mm

c. spiculated node

d. rounded

Q7. DERMAL and ORAL  MANIFESITATION COMMONLY SEEN IN TYPE OF LEUKEMIA

A) ALEUKEMIC LEUKEMIA

B) MONOCYTIC@@@

C)LYMPHOCYTIC

D) MYELOCYTIC

???Q8. hyperbaric oxygen therapy is containdicated in all except:

a. spherocytosis

b. thallasemia trait

c. reccurence of tumor

d. glaucoma

Q9. osteosarcoma can arise  from:

a. cherubism and osteopetrosis

b. paget and cherubism

c. paget and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia@@@

d. polyostotic and cherubism

Q10. mutation in GNAS1 gene is associated with:

a. florrid osseous dysplasias

b. mccune albright syndrome@@@?

c. jaffe Lichtenstein syndrome

d.cherubism

Q11. prgression of ameloblastoma is due to involvement/expression of:

a.bcl 2

b. FGF

c. p53

d. MMPs@@??

Q12. CSF can be differentiated by all except:

a. high CSF proetein@@@?

b. high glucose

c. tramline pattern

d. B 2 transferin

Q13. neurotransmitter seen in FREYS syndrome:

a. acetylcholine@@@

b. epinehrine

c. nor epinephrine

d. substance P

Q14. unusual finding in gingva??

a.primary herpes

b.reccurent apthae@@@

c.pyogenic granulma

d. erythema multiforme

PHARMA

????Q15. al of the following drugs crosses blood brain barrier except:

a. pennicillin

b. netilmycin

c. clindamycin

d. ceftazidine???

????Q16 mandibular sublaxation is caused by:

a. prochlorperazine???

b. ciprofloxacin

c.carbamazepine

d.diphenhydramine

????Q17. <2cm bony swelling  associated with pain and pain responding to  salicylates is?

a.osteoma 

b.osteoid osteoma ???

c.osteochondroma 

d.osteoblastoma

GEN SURGERY

Q18. patient with prosthetic valve is under surgery to avoid subacute endocarditis which regimen should be given

a. 2gm amoxicillin before 1 hr of surgery @@@@

b. 1gm amoxicillin before 2hr

c. 500 gm penicillin before 1 hr of surgery

d. ??

????Q19. hemophilia B patient is posted for surgery, he will require:

a. 80-100 units/6 hour

b. 80-100 unit/ 12 hr

c. 80-100 unit/24hr

d. 60-80unit/ 12 hr

????Q20.splenectomised patient s susceptible to 

a.anaerobic gram positive bacteria 

b.anaerobic gram negative bacteria 

c.non encapsulated organisms 

d.encapsulated organisms ???

DENTAL MATERIAL

Q21.Most modern precapsulatd dental amalgam formulatd with

A. 50- 55% hg by wt.

B. 42-45% hg by wt@@@

C. 25-35% hg by xt

D. 15-25% hg by wt

DADH

Q22. efferent nerve fibers seen in dental pulp are:

a. sympathetc postganglionic@@@@

b. parasympathetic post ganglionic

c. motor fibers

d. both autonomic parasympathetic and motor fibers

Q23.If cavity prep is done perpendicular to long axis of tooth lead to pulpal exposure mostly in -

a.mand 1st pm@@@ 

b.max 1st pm

c.max 2 pm 

d.mand 1st molar

PROSTHO

Q24. freedom of centric correlates with:

a. 0.15-0.25mm

b. 0.20-0.40

c. 0.5 to 1.5 mm@???

d. 1 to 2 mm

Q25.retentive arm in a clasp always points towrs--

1.facial

l2-buccal

3-gingival

4-occlusal@@@@

ORTHO

????Q26.  14yrs boy with class 2 div 1 malocculsion,which model ananlysis method is used to decide ,whether to do extraction or not 

1 ashley howe 

2 pecks n pecks 

3 bolton

4. ponts

??Q27. CBCT is most likely to be useful on diagnosis of treatment planning of which malocclusion:

a.  severe class 2 dic 1 malocclusion

b. madibular prognathism

c. mandibular retrognathism with severe ant crowding

d. bilateral impacted maxillary canine???

????Q28. 90 degree activation of pendulum applicance created how mch dital force on molars:

a. 125

b. 75

c. 350

d. 250???

CONS n ENDO

Q29. least desirable media for storing avulsed tooth:

a. saline

b. water@@@

c. milk

d. hanks balance solution

Q30. a 10 year old child with avulsed incisor 20 min back come to ur ofice, its a sound tooth with no #, coverd with dirt u will

a. clean the dirt with saline and replant@@@

b. sterlize the toth and replant

c. scrub and cureete the root surface and replant

d. clean with hypotonic solution and replant

Q31. etching time used in teeth with flourosis:

a. 10-15 sec

b. 15-30 sec

c. 60-90 sec@@@

d. flourosed teeth cant be etched

Q32.winged ruber dam retainer in endodontics use /adv are all except

a. radiogrpahs are good showing ful length of canals@@@

b.  stability

c. provide extra bucco lingual retraction

d. dam, clamp and frame placed in one operation

Q33. interdental papillae are seen protruding beneath the ruber dam mostly when:

a. holes are placed to far apart

b.  gingival enlargement due to inflammation

c. 

d.holes are placed too close@@@

???Q34.metal oxides used in porcelin

1 strength

2 bonding

3 color???

4 all

???Q35. In class 2 inlay prep.. How should the pulpal floor be placed in comparison with pulpal floor in amalgam class 2 prep?

a. Deeper

b. pulpal floor for amalgam should be placed deeper in dentin

c. Same as amalgam

d. None of the above

Q36. preparing a class 2 MO cavity on maxillary 1st premolar for amalgam matrix adaptation is difficult because: (not exact language)

a.  aesthetic is primary concern

b. a cervical concave surface on mesial surface of the crown@@@

c. faciolingual widh of mesial maginal ridge 

d. length of lingual cusp

Q37. to FURTHER minimize fracture amalgam in a class 2 amalgam restoratio:

a. axiopulpal line angle is bevelled@@@

b. gingival cavosurface enamel

c.retentive pins placed in dentin

d. dovetail in preparation

Q38. taking design into considerationt which of the following instrument of size 50 ,is more susceptible to fracture?

1 triangular shank  file

2 square shank reamer

3 headstrom file@@@

4 rhomboidal file

Q39. retention features r prepared  in class V cavity for dental amalgam ?

1. mesial nd distal walls

2. occlusal nd gingival walls@@@

3. at d expense of axial wall

Q40. after intracoronal bleaching if acid etching is required for an aesthetic composite restoration restoration immediately

1.rinse with catalase for 3 min@@@?

2.rinse with triple distilled water

3.cannot be done without waiting for ninimum 7 days

4.  irrigation with H2O2 nd ultrasonins

PEDO

Q41. After surgical correction of cleft palate.. Which of the following is seen?

a. Ant open bite

b. Ant deep bite

c. Unilateral/bilateral post cross bite@@@

d.rotated anteriors

PERIO

Q42. whilte and yellow color coating seen on the lesions of ANUG is called as:

a. pseuodomembrane@@@

b. material alba

c.pyogenic

d. none of above

Q43.A progressive increase in mandibular length and in mandibular interdental spacing in an adult patient is characteristic of:  

A Periodontosis

B. Hypothyroidism

C Hyperpituitirsm@@@

D. Hyperaldosteronism

Q44. above question was repeated twice..

Q45. three walled defect seen on

1.facial

2.lingual

3. interdental region@@@

4. furcation area in the max first molar

Q46. plateau like area formed due to resorbtion of the thick bony plates?? 

1. ledges @@@

2. exostosis 

3. osseous craters 

4. reverse  architecture 

????Q47. first clinical SYMPTOM of juvenile periodontitis

1.migration of incisors and molars???

2.constant dull radiating pain

3. root sensitivity

4.periodontal pocket???

Q48. most common conmposition of supragingival calculus

1.hydroxyapatite n octacalcium phosphate@@@

 2.cahydroxyapatite n mg whitlokite

 3.octacalcium phosphate n brushite

 4.mg whitlokite n octacalcium phosphate

ORAL SURGERY

????Q49.squamous cell carcinoma of lateral border of tongue T2No.treatment 

a.SOHND

b.level1-2 lymph node excision

c.level1-5

d.level 1-3

????Q50. class 3 development with mandibular deviation, developing crossbite, enlargement of conyle with increased radioopacity pointing towards lateral pterygoid muscle, most likely:

a. osteoma

b. osteoid osteoma

c. osteochondroma

d. condylar hyperplasia

Q51. open reduction is mandatory done for condlyar # when

a. associated with body #

b.  lateral displacement @@@?

c.  20 degree angulation

d. separated.condylar stump

Q52. most common fracture seen in a pediatric pateint:

a.downward and forward

b.downward and backward

c. single line superoinferior

d. zigzag line due to tooth buds@@?

???Q53. latent period used in distraction osteogenesis of a 8 month old child:

a. 5-7days???

b. 0-2 days

c. 21 days

d. 4-6wks

Q54. graft most similar histologically and morphologically to TMJ:

a. 5th costochondral@@@?

b. sternoclavicular

c. 3rd metatarsal bone

d. distration regenerate

???Q55. after le fort 1 osteotomy blo0d supply of maxilla is maintained by:

a. posterior sup alveolar artery

b. Greater palatine artery

c. anterior superior alveolar

d. ascending pharyngeal branch of facial artery

Q56. following soft palate paralysis all features can be seen except:

a. clefting of the palate@@@?

b.nasal twang

c. nasal regurgitation of fluids

d. flat palatal surface  

???Q57. sensitvity to pain is least likely to be seen in :

a. buccal mucosa

b. labial mucosa

c. gingiva@@@?

d. dorsal mucosa of tongue

???Q58. clampshell technique ?? 

a.illiac cortico-cancellous graft ???

b.illiac cancellous graft

3.rib harvest graft

??Q59.most probable fracture site of zygomatic arch?

a. zygomatic temporal suture

b. anterior to ZT suture

c. posterior to ZT suture

d. no specific location

???Q60. high velocity with comminuted fracture of mandible with periosteal rupture gunshot injury line of treatment 

1 immediate reconstructive plate n bone grafts

2 firstly do debribement then n 2nd visit load bearing plate n bone graft

3 external splint

4.bag of bones and IMF

???Q61. distraction  osteogenesis in children  

1.inc rate 

2.inc rythm 

3.latency period longer 

4.consolidation period longer

????Q62 which is not a theory of tmj ankylosis ?? 

a.fractured segment movs backward and fuses wid the zygomatic arch??? 

b.synovial fluid leakage attracts calcium ions 

c.calcification of soft tissue ( not the same language)

d.condyle burst

??? Q63.compression osteogenensis was initially used for ?

1.fibrous or non union of fractr

2.overgrowth of  bone due to costrocondral graft

3.bone reductn by campy plates

4.overgrowth by distraction osteogenesis

????Q64. most complicated trtmnt followin a angle fracture 

a. imf???

b. campys plate

c. AO plate

d. compression osteogenesis

???Q65. initial clicknin in tmj while opein is due to

a. protuded condyle in respect to articular disc

b. retruded condyle

c. perforated disc

d. internal derangement

Q66 blurring and narrowing of the inferior alveolar canal is due to.-

a. nerve perforating the apex

b. nerve superimposes the root

c. nerve traverses btwn the root@@@

d.

OMDR AND ORAL PATH

Q67. facial root of maxillary first premolar appears to b distal to the lingual root when-

1. rays are directed from mesial side @@@

2. rays directed from distal

3. rays detected from facial

4. rays detected from palatal

???Q68. X rays which are most likely to cause harm to a pateints body:

a. central rays

b. penetrating rays

c. aluminium filtered rays@@@?

d. short wavelength rays

???Q69. serum alkaline phosphatase is increased in all except:

a. paget disease

b. fibrous dysplasia

c. osteomyelitis

d. hyperparathyroidism@@@@

Q70. nasolabial cyst is derived from:

a. cell rest of serres

b. cell rests of mallassez

c. remnant of nasolacrimal duct@@@

d.  maxiallry sinus epithelium

Q71. all of the following cysts are associated with vital teeth:

a. dentigerous, lateral periodontal, OKC,globulomaxiallry@@@@

b. dentigerous, lateral periodotal, radicular

c. dentigerous, OKC, radicular

d. dentigerous, OKC, globulomaxillary

Q72. blue black pigmentatio seen in gingiva with pre existing inflammation seen in toxicity of:

a. bismuth

b.lead@@@

c.mercury

d. arsenic

    Q73. contrast agent is used to study joint space, procedure is called as

     a.arthroscopy

     b.arthrography@@@@

     c.orthopantomogram

     d.arthroplasty

Q74.unusual extensibility of tongue is a feature of

a.ehler danlos@@@

b.

c.

d.

Q75  Nickolsky's sign positive in

a.psoriasis

b.pemphigus@@@

c.lichen planus

Q76.effect of radiation

a.ionisation@@@

b. precipitation

c. agglutination

d.

????Q77.which is reliated with vital teeth in a 18 year male patient aspiration negative, from 36-44,not eroding teeth 

a. Aneurysmal bone cyst

b. radicular 

c. CGCG

d. ameloblastoma???

Q78. most common site for melanotic ectodermal tumour of infancy

A. maxilla ???

B. mandible 

C.  ethmoid

D. cervical spine 

Q79.diff bt periapical cemental dysplasia and periapical granuloma ?  

a.rct washings

b.vitality @@@

c.histo

d.xray

Q80.Young individual.. Infection of left lateral incisor.. Entire left side if face swollen.. Tender on palpation.. Unable to chew.. 102 degree temp.. Tmt plan?

a.incision and drainage@@@

b.aspiration

c.antibiotics and heat

d. antibiotics, heat n fluid

Q81.a pt reports with "brown teeth", brittle enamel, pulp obliterated, short roots. (not the exact language)

a.amelogenesis imperfecta 

b.dentinogenesis imperfecta @@@

c.fluorosis

Q.82 all are the characterstics of a peizoelectric sclaing unit EXCEPT:

a. to and fro motion

b. figure of eight motion@@@

c. operate at 40 KHZ

d. releases less heat??

Q83 which of the following method is used in detection of primary herpes:

 1.culuture with giemsa stain@@@@

 2. culture wid wright stain

 3. routine cytology

 4. flourescent stain for cytology

Q84. central giant cell granuloma histologically and radiographically resembles

1. fibrous dysplasia

2. pagets disease

3. albrights disease

4. hyperparathyroidsm@@??

Q85. bells palsy-

1. upper motor neuron disease

2. lower motor neuron disease@@@

3. lower motor involving crevicofacial segment of 7th nerve

4. 

Q86. exogenous organisms are considered to be etiological agent in causing caries-

1. capability to produce dextran like glucan@@@

Q87. cause of osteoradionecrosis after radiation is due to-

1. infection

2. endarteritis@@@

3.

4.

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 

Q88.  P<.001 denotes

 1. significant for 99.99%@@@

 2. not significant

 3.1% ccurrence by chance

 4.not relevent

GEN MEDICINE

Q.89 fovia palatine situated in hard palate signifies what:

a. palatal termination of max. denture

b. opening of orifice of minor salivary gland ducts@@@

c. ??

d. ???

Q90.  most imp fatcor in irrigation in rct:

‎1.quantity of irrigant@@@

‎2. needle size

‎3. depth of penetration of needle

 ‎4.Chelation capacity of irrigation material